CISCO CCNP CERTIFICATION

Cisco CCNP Practical Studies: Troubleshooting (CCNP Self-Study)

2008-12-28T20:20:00.001-08:00

Hands-on practice for the CCNP Troubleshooting exam with TCP/IP, LAN, and WAN trouble tickets based on Cisco Internetwork Troubleshooting (CIT) topics

With this book, you can:

Set up and follow along with real-world lab scenarios aligned to each exam topic, with or without the actual equipment
Establish a baseline and document your physical and logical network
Identify troubleshooting targets using ping, trace, show, clear, debug, and other troubleshooting tools and utilities
Diagnose and troubleshoot actual problems by following along with author-provided Catalyst(r) OS and Cisco IOS(r) Software command input, output, and logging
Use instructor-developed problem-isolation methods to resolve Trouble Tickets
"Sniff" the wire to spot network issues
Analyze local and remote access problems in Ethernet networks, including issues with cabling, speed and duplex, utilization and collisions, bandwidth, CSMA/CD, one-way link, auto negotiation, addressing, encapsulation, and more
Apply a layered troubleshooting methodology to real-life routing and switching environments

http://www.megaupload.com/?d=Y4N5819W

CCNP ISCW Quick Reference Sheets - Exam 642-825

2008-12-26T22:29:00.000-08:00

As a final exam preparation tool, the four CCNP Quick Reference Sheets included in this value-priced bundle provide a concise review of all objectives on all four of the new CCNP exams (BSCI 642-901, BCMSN 642-812, ISCW 642-825, and ONT 642-845). These digital Short Cuts provide you with detailed, graphical-based information, highlighting only the key topics in cram-style format.

http://www.megaupload.com/?d=E7ON2ULK

from freeciscobooks

Cisco ccnp ont quick reference sheets exam 642-845

2008-12-26T22:27:00.000-08:00

As a final exam preparation tool, the four CCNP Quick Reference Sheets included in this value-priced bundle provide a concise review of all objectives on all four of the new CCNP exams (ONT 642-845). These digital Short Cuts provide you with detailed, graphical-based information, highlighting only the key topics in cram-style format.

http://www.megaupload.com/?d=WDBKNCZ4

from freeciscobooks

Cisco Press Cisco CCNP BSCI Official Exam Certification Guide (4th Edition)

2008-12-26T22:24:00.000-08:00

CCNP BSCI Official Exam Certification Guide, Fourth Edition, follows a logical organization of the CCNP® BSCI exam objectives. Material is presented in a concise manner, focusing on increasing readers' retention and recall of exam topics. “Do I Know This Already?” quizzes open each chapter and allow you to determine how much time you need to spend on each section. Exam topic lists and Foundation Summary tables make referencing easy and give you a quick refresher whenever you need it. Scenario-based exercises help you think about exam objectives in real-world situations, thus increasing recall during exam time. Challenging chapter-ending review questions help you assess your knowledge and reinforce key concepts.

Master all 642-901 exam topics with the official study guide
Assess your knowledge with chapter-opening quizzes
Review key concepts with foundation summaries

http://www.mediafire.com/?obyrwptts20

from freeciscobooks

Pass4sure Cisco CCNP Latest Dumps - 642-825 - 642-845 - 642-901 - 642-812

2008-12-26T22:22:00.001-08:00

It is well known that Cisco CCNP certification training is experiencing a great demand in IT industry area. In recent years, the CCNP certification has become a global standard for many successful IT companies.

Using the online virtual CCNP practice engine at Pass4sure, no need to purchase anything else or attend expensive training, we promise that you can pass the CCNP certification exam at the first try , or else give you a FULL REFUND. In addition, Pass4sure offers free CCNP practise tests with best questions.

642-825
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642-845
http://rapidshare.com/files/174313847/642-8453_V.10.rar

642-901
http://rapidshare.com/files/174313848/642-9013.10.rar

642-812
http://rapidshare.com/files/174313849/642812_V3.10.rar

from freeciscobooks

CCNP Cisco Networking Academy version 5

2008-12-23T16:04:00.000-08:00

The Cisco CCNP® curriculum includes four modules, which align with the four exams required for CCNP certification. The CCNP curriculum builds on Cisco CCNA® courses with more complex network configurations, diagnosis, and troubleshooting. The curriculum is intended for those interested in continuing their post-CCNA preparation to become network administrators, Level 2 support engineers, Level 2 systems engineers, network technicians, or deployment engineers. Students interested in this course should have completed CCNA 1-4, or the equivalents. CCNA certification is also desirable; however, it is not a prerequisite. The new CCNP courses can be taken in any order. However it is recommended that students take Building Multilayer Switched Networks before taking Optimizing Converged Networks. The four courses include: Building Scalable Internetworks, Implementing Secured Converged Wide-area Networks, Building Multilayer Switched Networks, and Optimizing Converged Networks.

Download:

BSCI v5.0
http://rapidshare.com/files/128029017/CCNP1_v50_en_netbks.com.part1.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/128029024/CCNP1_v50_en_netbks.com.part2.rar

ISCW v5.0
http://rapidshare.com/files/128028959/en_C.C.N.P2_v50_netbks.com.part1.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/128028971/en_C.C.N.P2_v50_netbks.com.part2.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/132296494/en_C.C.N.P2_v50_netbks.com.part3.rar

BCMSN v5.0
http://rapidshare.com/files/128028989/C.C.N.P3_v50_en_netbks.com.part1.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/132296564/C.C.N.P3_v50_en_netbks.com.part2.rar

ONT v5.0
http://rapidshare.com/files/128029012/en_C.C.N.P4_v50_netbks.com.part1.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/128029105/en_C.C.N.P4_v50_netbks.com.part2.rar

TrainSignal Lab 26 - Cisco CCNP CIT

2008-12-23T15:50:00.001-08:00

Learn to Troubleshoot a Cisco Network by Watching it Configured on an actual Network!
14+ Hours (on CD) of Top Quality Cisco CCNP Training Videos
All Instructor-Led!
70+ pg PDF Lab Book on CD — Cisco Troubleshooting “How To” Guide
100+ Top Quality Cisco CCNP CIT Practice Exam Questions

Learn the In's and Out's of ARP and Proxy ARP
Truly Understand Static & Dynamic Mappings
Setup & Troubleshoot LMI Autosense
Setup, Configure & Troubleshoot PPP Callback & Multilink
Learn Troubleshooting 101: Where to Start
Learn How to Troubleshoot Dialer Watch
Know How to Debug Layer 2 and Layer 3 with ISDN
Setup, Configure & Troubleshoot Common VLAN and VTP Setup Errors
Master the art of Troubleshooting Serial Interfaces
Know How to Properly Document; Topology Diagrams, Network Configuration Tables, Troubleshooting Models and more....
Configure and Troubleshoot RIP, IGRP, and EIGRP
Learn to Troubleshoot OSPF and ISIS like a seasoned professional
Setup, Configure & Troubleshoot IPSEC and Access Lists
Learn about Debugging TCP and IP Helper Addressing
Master the Different Connection Testing Methods including Ping, Traceroute, and Telnet
Become a BGP Troubleshooting Specialist!
This is just the beginning! By the time you are finished, you will have the understanding & "know-how" to setup, manage and troubleshoot Networks with the Best!

Download
(RapidShare Links)
CD1
http://rapidshare.de/files/32706439/Train.Signal.Lab.26.CCNP.CIT.CD.1.part2.rar
http://rapidshare.de/files/32706466/Train.Signal.Lab.26.CCNP.CIT.CD.1.part1.rar
CD2
http://rapidshare.de/files/32706594/Train.Signal.Lab.26.CCNP.CIT.CD.2.part1.rar
http://rapidshare.de/files/32706584/Train.Signal.Lab.26.CCNP.CIT.CD.2.part2.rar

CHAPTER 9 - CCNP 2 Remote Access

2008-12-23T05:33:00.000-08:00

1
Which queuing method places no priority on traffic types?
CQ
FIFO
WFQ
PQ

2
Which Cisco queuing method provides strict priority queuing for Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing?
LLQ
PQ
WFQ
CQ

3
Which command displays queuing information for the router interfaces?
show interface-queue
show custom-queuing
show interfaces
show custom-queue-list

4
By default, which form of data compression is used when data is transmitted across a serial link?
link compression
payload compression
TCP header compression
no compression

5
Which compression method is used by Cisco's HDLC to ensure error correction and packet sequencing?
payload compression
STAC compression
TCP header compression
per-virtual-circuit compression

6
Which of the listed Cisco queuing methods has the fewest configuration tasks associated with it?
CQ
WFQ
PQ
CBWFQ

7
Which two statements are included as common goals for establishing a queuing policy? (Choose two.)
establish a fair bandwidth distribution policy across the various types of network traffic
grant strict priority large packets, possibly at the expense of less critical network traffic
customize bandwidth allocation so that network resources are shared equally among all of the applications
analyze and distinguish the types of traffic using an interface to effectively configure a queuing policy

8
What is the most effective solution to the problem of a constantly congested WAN link?
CQ
WFQ
additional bandwidth
PQ

9
In order to give priority to delay-sensitive traffic, such as voice, what is the preferred queuing method on links that are 1.5 Mbps or slower?
CBWFQ
WFQ
LLQ
FIFO

10
When an individual conversation queue contains more messages than the congestive-discard threshold and the queuing for that conversation stops, what must happen before any new messages are queued?
The content of the queue must drop below one-third of the congestive-discard threshold value.
The content of the queue must drop below one-fourth of the congestive-discard threshold value.
The content of the queue must drop below one-fifth of the congestive-discard threshold value.
The content of the queue must drop below one-tenth of the congestive-discard threshold value.

11
Which compression method involves compressing both header and payload?
link compression
payload compression
TCP header compression
per-virtual-circuit compression

12
Which queuing method is used inside each class in class-based weighted fair queuing (CBWFQ)?
FIFO
PQ
CQ
WFQ

13
A queuing policy helps the network manager meet which two major challenges? (Choose two.)
controls bursty LAN traffic
provides an appropriate level of service for all users
improves network security
controls expensive WAN costs

14
Which compression method involves compressing only the data portion of the data stream?
link compression
TCP header compression
payload compression
per-interface compression

15
Which term describes a variation in network delay?
latency
Jitter
tail-drop
jabber

16
Weighted Random Early Detect (WRED) attempts to fix which issue?
TCP windows sizes
global synchronization
latency
packet loss

17
During periods of congestion, what process does a router use to schedule packets for transmission?
Queuing
buffering
switching
compression

18
For which type of problem is traffic prioritization most effective?
constant congestion
temporary congestion
high level of downtime
bursty traffic and high data rates

CHAPTER 13 - CCNP 2 Remote Access

2008-12-23T05:32:00.000-08:00

1
Which are benefits of IKE? (Choose three.)
eliminates the need for dynamic allocation of peers
eliminates the need to manually specify all IPSec security parameters in crypto maps at both peers
allows IPSec to provide anti-replay services
allows the user to manually specify a lifetime for the IPSec SA
eliminates encryption key changes during a session

2
Which two statements are true about the crypto isakmp identity {address hostname} command? (Choose two.)
the hostname parameter is used by default
the address parameter is used by default
the command is entered at the interface level
the command is entered at the global level

3
Which security technique is used to ensure that messages can only be read by intended receivers?
Encryption
encoding
modulation
compression

4
When are transform sets negotiated?
during quick mode IKE phase two
during crypto mode IKE phase two
during quick mode IKE phase one
during crypto mode IKE phase one

5
What does the command RTA(config-isakmp)#group 1 add to a crypto ISAKMP policy?
DES encryption
sha-1 message integrity algorithm
768 bit key exchange parameter
1024 bit key exchange parameter

6
What are two reasons why transforms esp-md5-hmac and esp-sha-hmac are used more frequently than transforms ah-md5-hmac and ah-sha-hmac? (Choose two.)
They use fewer CPU resources.
They provide more data integrity.
They are compatible with NAT and PAT.
They eliminate the need for esp-null.

7
A network administrator is defining an IPSec security policy for the network. Phase one consists of determining the IKE policies between IPSec peers. What factors must the administrator consider when developing the policies in this first phase?
number and location of the peers
routing protocols in use on the peers
crypto maps in use on the peers
peer details such as IPSec transform sets and IPSec modes

8
What two components make up a VPN? (Choose two.)
authentication
Encryption
public network
private network
Tunneling

9
In the command crypto isakmp key keystring address peer-address, what are two requirements for the keystring? (Choose two.)
up to 128 bits
up to 128 bytes
alphanumeric characters only
alphanumeric and special characters

10
Which technology provides optional anti-replay services?
Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP)
Security Association (SA)
Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)

11
Which critical functions are provided by VPNs?(Choose three.)
confidentiality of information
integrity of data
authorization of users
authentication of users
WAN management

12
Which statement characterizes IPSec transport mode in the diagram?
HOST A and HR server are using IPSec to encrypt data
RTA , RTB, HOST A and HR SERVER are using IPSec to encrypt data
HOST A and HR SERVER are using RSA to encrypt data
RTA and RTB are using RSA to encrypt data
RTA and RTB are using IPSec to encrypt data

13
Crypto access-lists perform which two functions when protecting data? (Choose two.)
outbound - indicate data flow to be protected
inbound - indicate data flow to be protected
outbound - select traffic to be sent in clear text
inbound - select traffic to be sent in clear text
outbound - filter and discard traffic that should have been protected
inbound - filter and discard traffic that should have been protected

14
Which four encryption methods provide symmetric encryption? (Choose four.)
secret key
DES
RSA
3DES
public key
AES

15
Which algorithm methods provide asymmetric encryption?(Choose two.)
Secret Key
DES
RSA
3DES
Public Key
AES

16
Which statement characterizes the use of confidentiality and authentication of the Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) in an IPSec packet?
both are required
confidentiality is required and authentication is optional
authentication is required and confidentiality is optional
both are optional but at least one must be selected

17
Which command will show default and any configured IKE policies?
show running-config
show crypto isakmp policy
show crypto map
show crypto ipsec transform-set

18
Which access list command will block ISAKMP access on an interface that is not used for IPSec to prevent possible denial-of-service attacks?
access-list 102 deny ahp host 172.30.2.2 host 172.30.1.2 eq isakmp
access-list 102 deny esp host 172.30.2.2 host 172.30.1.2 eq isakmp
access-list 102 deny udp host 172.30.2.2 host 172.30.1.2 eq isakmp
access-list 102 deny tcp host 172.330.2.2 host 172.30.1.2 eq isakmp

19
Which IPSec element represents a policy contract between two peers or hosts?
AH
SA
HMAC
ESP

CHAPTER 12 - CCNP 2 Remote Access

2008-12-23T03:32:00.000-08:00

1
Which solutions can a cable operator of a Hybrid Fiber Cable (HFC) apply when there is constant congestion on the line? (Choose two.)
run fiber to each home
allocate another downstream channel
allocate another upstream channel
allocate additional bandwidth to affected customers
run fiber deeper into the neighborhood

2
Which form of DSL uses the frequency band of 20khz to 1Mhz?
IDSL
SDSL
ADSL
VDSL

3
Which bridging method is suited to a small ISP?
ATM PVC
PPP over Ethernet (PPPoE)
RFC 1483 bridging
PPP over ATM (PPPoA)

4
What is the maximum distance ADSL transmissions will work?
18,000 meters
5460 meters
17,068 meters
2478 meters

5
Which standards or organizations are associated with cable broadband networks?(Choose three.)
NTSC
PAL
ANSI
SECAM
OSI

6
Which of the following is a characteristic of ADSL?
It is designed to deliver more bandwidth downstream than upstream.
It is designed to deliver more bandwidth upstream than downstream.
The upstream rates range from 1.5 to 9 Mbps.
The downstream rates range from 16 to 640 Kbps.

7
Which Data-over-Cable Service Interface Specifications (DOCSIS) standard provides 30 Mbps in the upstream direction?
DOCSIS 1.0
DOCSIS 1.1
DOCSIS 2.0
Euro-DOCSIS

8
Which modulation techniques can ADSL use? (Choose three.)
carrierless amplitude modulation/phase modulation (CAP)
frequency division multiplexing (FDM)
quadrature phase shift keying (QPSK)
discrete multitone modulation (DMT)
consumer/Mass-Market DMT (G.lite)
quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM)

9
In which data over ADSL architecture is the user PC required to run client software?
PPPoA
PPPoE
CAP
RFC 1483/2684

10
What determines the power level and frequency that a cable modem transmits data from a PC?
the Network Interface Card (NIC)
the CMTS
the cable modem
the media type

11
A network administrator has partially set up the serial interfaces on the company router which connected to the ISP with an ADSL link. The ISP is running DHCP services to customers. Partial output from the running-config command is:interface ethernet0ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0no cdp enableno shut!interface ethernet1no cdp enableno shut!Which command is used to assign an IP address to ethernet1?
ip address dhcp
no ip address
ip address unassigned
ip address negotiated

12
What is the most popular modulation technique that ADSL uses?
carrierless amplitude modulation/phase modulation (CAP)
frequency division multiplexing (FDM)
quadrature phase shift keying (QPSK)
discrete multitone modulation (DMT)
consumer/Mass-Market DMT (G.lite)
quadrature amplitude modulation (QAM)

13
Which ADSL standard is supported by ANSI and ITU?
CAP
DMT
FDM
QAM

14
What are two characteristics of DSL? (Choose two.)
uses fiber for local loop transmission
uses copper for local loop transmission
uses Layer 2 technology
uses Layer 1 technology

15
How do cable modems transfer data across local cable TV lines?
carries analog signals end-to-end
carries digital signals end-to-end
toggles between radio frequency and analog data signals
modulates digital data to an RF and transmits it at a specific frequency

CCNP CURRICULUM

2008-12-21T16:54:00.002-08:00

Description:
CCNP1 Advanced Routing Competencies

Upon completion of CCNP1, students will be able to perform
advanced routing tasks including:
• Selecting and configuring scalable IP addresses
• Implementing technologies to redistribute and support
multiple, advanced, IP routing protocols such as OSPF,
EIGRP, and BGP
• Configuring access lists
• Designing and testing edge router connectivity into a
BGP network

CCNP2 Remote Access Competencies

Upon completion of CCNP2, students will be able to perform
advanced remote access tasks including:
• Configuring Asynchronous connections
• Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) architecture, protocol,
callback, and compression
• ISDN architecture, protocol layers, BRI and DDR
• Configuring X.25, Frame Relay, and AAA

CCNP3 Multilayer Switching Competencies

Upon completion of CCNP3, students will be able to perform
multilayer switching tasks including:
• Fast Ethernet, Gigabit Ethernet
• VLAN basics, types, identification, and trunking protocol
• Spanning Tree Protocol
• MLS processes, and configuration
• Multicasting protocols, routing, and tasks

CCNP4 Network Troubleshooting Competencies
Upon completion of CCNP4, students will be able to perform
network-troubleshooting tasks in areas such as:
• OSI Layers 1, 2, and 3
• TCP/IP, LAN switching, VLANs, Frame Relay, ISDN,
Appletalk, Novell, EIGRP, OSPF, BGP

--DOWNLOAD CURRICULUM--

Fundamentals of Wireless LANs Answer #11

2008-12-21T16:54:00.001-08:00

1 Which type of reasoning works from general to specific?

deductive
inductive
intuitive
general

2 What is the goal of performance management?

To measure and report various aspects of network performance so that the network is maintained at an acceptable level.
To monitor network and system configuration information so that the effects of multiple versions of hardware and software on network operation can be tracked and studied.
To measure network utilization parameters so that individual or group users on the network can be appropriately regulated.
To detect, log, report, and automatically fix network problems to keep the network running effectively.

3 The FCC requires professional installation of high gain directional antennas for systems that exceed 36 dBm. How must these systems operate?

multipoint-to-point
point-to-point
multipoint-to-point
multipoint-to-point and multipoint-to-point

4 Which OSI layer is responsible for placing information on the medium?

transport
network
data link
physical

5 What is the goal of security management in the ISO Network Management Model?

To measure and report various aspects of network performance so that the network is maintained at an acceptable level.
To monitor network and system configuration information so that the effects of various versions of hardware and software on network operation can be tracked and studied.
To measure network utilization parameters so that individual or group users on a network can be appropriately regulated.
To control access to network resources according to local guidelines so that a network cannot be disrupted.

6 Which of the following questions should be answered so that a network administrator is prepared for a network failure? (Select three.)

Is there an accurate physical and logical map of the network?
Are there filters that are configured on any switches?
Which protocols are being routed? x
Is there a list of all the network protocols that are implemented?
Are all computer brands compatible?

7 In the ISO Network Management Model, what is the goal of configuration management?

To measure and make available various aspects of network performance so that the network can be maintained at an acceptable level.
To monitor network and system configuration information so that the effects on network operation of various versions of hardware and software elements can be tracked and managed.
To measure network-utilization parameters so that individual or group uses on the network can be regulated appropriately.
To detect, log, notify users of, and automatically fix network problems to keep the network running effectively.

8 Which of the following options can be considered common Layer 1 errors? (Select three.)

improperly configured serial interfaces
broken cables
transceiver problems
disconnected cables
routing protocol not enabled

9 What can be used to determine the distance to a fault in a cable?

cable toner
multimeter
network analyzer
time domain reflectometer

10 When configuring an AP, which CLI command saves the active configuration to Flash?

copy active-config startup-flash
copy running-config startup-flash
copy running-config startup-config
copy active-config startup-config

11 A router functions at which layer of the OSI model?

transport
network
data link physical

12 Which AP CLI configuration command enables visible sequence numbering of system logging messages?

sequence numbers on set sequence number
sequence number service up
service sequence-numbers

13 Which types of cable can be tested with the Fluke 620 CableMeter? (Select three.)

coaxial
multimode fiber-optic
single-mode fiber-optic
STP
UTP

14 What is the goal of accounting management in the ISO Network Management Model?

To measure and report various aspects of network performance so that the network is maintained at an acceptable level.
To monitor network and system configuration information so that the effects of various versions of hardware and software on network operation can be tracked and studied.
To measure network utilization parameters so that individual or group users on the network can be appropriately regulated.
To detect, log, report, and automatically fix network problems to keep the network running effectively.

15 A repeater functions at which layer of the OSI model?

transport
network
data link
physical

16 A switch functions at which layer of the OSI model?

ransport
network
data link
physical

17 Which of the following options can be considered Layer 3 errors? (Select three.)

routing protocol not enabled
disconnected cables
incorrect subnet masks
incorrect DNS to IP bindings
intermittent cable connection

18 Most network problems occur at which layer of the OSI model ?

Layer 4
Layer 3
Layer 2
Layer 1

19 Which show command displays the system hardware configuration, the software version, the names and sources of configuration files, and the boot image of a router?

show memory
show processes
show protocols
show version

20 During the installation of a Cisco wireless LAN adapter, a technician experiences difficulty attaching to the wireless LAN. While troubleshooting the problem, the technician wants to check the firmware version on the LAN adapter. Which Windows utility can be used to see if the hardware is functioning properly and will also display the firmware version of the WLAN?

environmental variables
device manager
device debugger
startup and recovery

21 Installation of a wireless network requires that a technician set an identifier on each device attached to the LAN. What is the terminology that describes this identifier?

LEAP
WLAN
SSID
WEPT

22 When using the CLI to configure SNMP on an AP, which command sets the system location string?

snmp-server location
snmp-server community
snmp-location server
snmp-location community

23 Which command can help determine connectivity between devices on a network?

debug
ping
show
trace

Fundamentals of Wireless LANs Answer #10

2008-12-21T16:53:00.001-08:00

1 What are characteristics of firewalls in buildings? (Select three.)
They extend from floor to ceiling.
They are the outside walls of the building.
They channel the spread of fires to less sensitive areas of the building.
They are composed of concrete, cinderblock or brick.
They contain no breaks.

2 Why is it inappropriate to use an adhesive to secure an access point onto a column?

The adhesive can alter the RF signal.
The adhesive may dry out and the access point will fall.
The access point would be destroyed if it had to be removed.
The adhesive may short out the sensitive electronics in the access point.

3 Which activities are considered part of the characterization of a network? (Select three.)

identifying standard naming conventions
investigating architectural and environmental constraints
documenting installed application packages
documenting the types and lengths of physical cabling
documenting user names and locations

4 How can an engineer be more efficient in developing a baseline for an existing network? (Select two.)

Gain an understanding of the technical and business goals of the customer.
Rely on the original baseline measurements from the network installation.
Ask the customer to indicate typical network segments from which they can extrapolate information.
Randomly select and survey 10 percent of the existing network to estimate the baseline.

5 What can be done if the current number of access points provides too little coverage but the addition of another access point would provide too much coverage? (Select three.)

Change the antenna to gain more coverage.
Arrange the clients to avoid the uncovered area.
Change the power levels on one or more of the access points to change the size of the coverage cells.
Use a wired connection in the uncovered areas.
Change the antenna to reduce coverage and add more access points.

6 Why is it important for the site survey to list the location and brand of every breaker box that will power the access points?

The electrician must be able to easily identify and install the wiring in the correct box
Only certain types of breakers are compatible with access points.
The access points must be within 44 meters (145 feet) of the breaker panel.
The electrician must be able to remotely determine if a specific box is on a dedicated circuit for an access point.

7 Why is it important to conduct a wireless survey with all building doors closed?

to prevent unauthorized people from entering the survey area
to minimize distractions to the survey team
to make certain the building doors do not affect the coverage area
to more easily determine the exact size of the room

8 A network consisting entirely of fiber optic cabling requires which additional piece of equipment for each access point?

fiber switch
media transceiver
optical switch
fiber-optic hub

9 What are the advantages of providing a customer with a detailed site survey report? (Select two.)

Potential problem areas can be identified before the installation is started.
The customer will be able to complete the installation themselves.
Portions of the survey can be provided to the contractors so they can install any necessary cabling.
The customer can use the survey to contract out the job to a less expensive firm.

10 Why must the site survey report be as detailed as possible? (Select two.)

The surveyor may not be the installer.
The customer has paid for the information.
The details will provide protection for the customer and for the vendor who does the report.
The report must ensure the customer fully understands the technology.

11 Which natural phenomenon is responsible for creating RF "shadows" that may cause connectivity issues in a WLAN?

reflection
diffraction
scattering refraction

12 When should a baseline measurement of an existing network be completed?

over several days
during the peak utilization period
during the evening when load is at a minimum
only after changes to a network have been completed

13 Why is it important to understand the existing network infrastructure before starting a site survey? (Select two.)

to try to replace the maximum amount of wired network
to make certain that all equipment is compatible
to determine if the design goals of a customer are realistic
to document potential problems
to make certain that the protocols used will work with the access points

14 What should be included on a network map? (Select three.)

The exact location of all workstations.
The location of all routers, switches and hubs.
WAN and LAN connections between buildings and between campuses.
The location of mainframe computers.
The topology of any firewall security systems.

15 What follows the implementation phase in the Network Design and Implementation Cycle?
monitoring
analysis
development
testing

16 Company A has decided to automate their inventory process and must provision their warehouse with wireless access. The warehouse is 137 m (450 ft) by 91 m (300 ft) and contains rows of fully stocked metal shelves. The spacing between the 1.8 m (6 ft) wide rows of shelves is 6.1 m (20 ft). What is the optimal antenna type and placement to provide near 100 percent coverage to this warehouse scenario?

Yagi antennas mounted on wall A aimed down the rows between the shelves.
Ground Plane antenna mounted in the ceiling in the center of the warehouse.
Dipole antennas mounted in each corner of the warehouse.
Mast antennas mounted in the ceiling between each row.

17 What is the most common media type for LAN installations?

air
multimode fiber optic
UTP
STP
coaxial

18 What is the most common physical topology used in networks?

bus
star
ring
mesh

19 Why is it necessary to determine which protocols will be sent over the WLAN?

to reduce traffic by filtering out unnecessary traffic
to properly configure client machines
to acquire the proper servers
to select the best network operating system

20 What is a required feature of all network equipment that is installed in the air return space between the drop ceiling and the real ceiling?

It must have special mounting brackets.
It must be mounted according to federal building codes.
It must be low voltage DC units.
It must be plenum rated.

21 Which item is considered a testing tool for wireless networking?

spectrum analyzer
access point
rope
digital camera

22 Which two options are considered part of the WLAN implementation process? (Select two.)

design
configuration
mapping
verification testing

23 What is created by waves that are 180 degrees out of phase?

shadows
nulls
ghosts
reflections

24 Which two options should be part of the wireless network design? (Select two.)

network topology
map of coverage areas
installation
verification testing

Fundamentals of Wireless LANs Answer #9

2008-12-21T16:52:00.001-08:00

1 As shown in the graphic, what is the status of a signal that falls into the green section when using the Cisco Link Status Meter (LSM) to determine the strength and quality of the RF signal?

poor
fair
good
excellent

2 In an access point, what are the available encryption choices? (Select three.)

no encryption allow client to specify encryption
matched system encryption
parallel client encryption
forced encryption

3 What ensures that a mobile user's wireless connection is never interrupted while roaming from access point to access point?

power levels must be maximized
cells must overlap
frequency levels must be matched
bridges must be properly placed

4 In a wireless LAN, what can be done to extend the coverage area without deploying another access point that is connected to the same broadcast domain?

Use a second access point in repeater mode.
Use a wireless bridge.
Increase the access point power level.
Use a second access point on a different channel.

5 What are some operating and environmental conditions that need to be considered before installing the WLAN system? (Select three.)

distance between fluorescent lights
antenna type and placement data rates
ceiling height
fuse panels
line of site

6 What happens when water gets into a coax connector on an antenna?

Nothing happens because coax connectors are waterproof.
The water will work up through the coax and render it useless.
The water will cause an immediate open in the coax.
The water will cause the coax to rust but it will still be usable.

7 The path loss margin defines how much path interference is acceptable for communication. What is the maximum acceptable fade margin to maintain dependable communication in all weather conditions?

5dB
20dB
15dB
10dB

8 What is the default PCMCIA client adapter mode?

CAM
FastCAM
PSP
FastPSP

9 What is the realistic maximum link speed for 802.11b?

5 Mbps
7 Mbps
9 Mbps
11 Mbps

10 In a wireless system, throughput is typically what percentage of the actual data rate?

40% to 50%
50% to 60%
60% to 70%
70% to 80%

11 Which client adapter power mode should be selected for clients who switch between AC and DC power?

CAM mode
FastCAM mode
PSP
FastPSP

12 When documenting site survey information, what should be indicated on a set of drawings or prints? (Select three.)

wall locations
AP locations
ceiling types
coverage areas cable and electrical requirements

13 Which type of roaming must have good overlap of access points with no holes in coverage?

continuous
seamless
transparent
virtual

14 Which client adapter mode should be selected when power conservation is not an issue?

CAM
FastCAM
PSP
FastPSP

15 When using the site survey tool, which mode does not initiate any RF network traffic?

repeater mode
stand-alone mode
passive mode
active mode
parallel mode

16 When using the site survey tool, a specific mode causes the client adapter to actively send or receive low-level RF packets to and from its associated AP and provides information on the success rate. Which mode accomplishes these functions?

repeater mode
stand-alone mode
passive mode
active mode
parallel mode

17 A formula is used to determine the height of the antenna in a 2.4 GHz WLAN. This formula adds the mid-path Fresnel zone width at a specific percentage and a numeric value that represents the curvature of the earth. What is the mid-path Fresnel zone percentage that is used?

40%
50%
60%
70%

18 Which type of roaming requires a constant IP subnet for the client and precludes the use of mobile IP?

continuous
seamless
transparent
virtual

19 Which type of analyzer can be used to locate sources of radio frequency interference (RFI)?

digital
analog
spectrum
spherical

20 Which three are routed protocols? (Select three.)

RIP
IP
OSPF
EIGRP
IPX Appletalk

21 Which antennas are used in WLANs? (Select three.)

diversity omni ceiling mount
oval omni ceiling mount
spherical patch
hemispherical patch diversity patch wall mount

22 What provides a network with the best protection from damage caused by a direct lightning strike on an antenna?

surge protector
copper patch cable
lightning arrestor
fiber optic cabling

Fundamentals of Wireless LANs Answer #8

2008-12-21T04:47:00.000-08:00

1 Which device could be responsible for authenticating clients on the network in an 802.1x environment?

access point
RADIUS server
enterprise main database container
switch

2 The exploitation of weak passwords is considered which type of wireless attack?

Access
DoS
DDoS
Reconnaissance

3 AES uses which encryption algorithm?

Taylor
Rhinehart
Rijndael
Frey

4 How many VLANS are supported by the AP 1200 series?

8
16
32
64

5 Which IEEE standard is used by WPA to allow user authentication in wireless LANs?

802.1i
802.1x
802.11c
802.11x

6 Which encryption protocol was adopted as the official government standard by the U.S. Secretary of Commerce in May of 2002?

3DES
WEP
AES
TKIP

7 What is the WEP key size specified in the 802.11 standard?

256 bit
64 bit and 128 bit
40 bit and 128 bit
40 bit

8 Fryco has just acquired Victoria Inc. and has decided to change from the current DES cryptographic algorithm to the more secure AES. What must Fryco do to accomplish this task?

Nothing since AES and DES are completely interchangeable.
All access points must be replaced but no changes are necessary on the client side.
All access points and NICs will have to be replaced since AES requires a coprocessor in order to function.
Access points and NICs will only require a firmware upgrade to be able to use AES.

9 Which statement describes why the SSID should not be used as a security feature?

SSIDs cannot be changed after initial setup.
SSIDs only use a 40-bit encryption key.
SSIDs are sent in clear text.
SSIDs are written on the back of the access point.

10 When set to Repeater mode, an AP can associate with how many parent APs?

3
4
5
6

11 How might an employee bypass a weak security policy and jeopardize the network security of a company?

Use a personal wireless network card on the company network.
Connect to the Internet.
Change the WEP and SSID on their client.
Install their personal AP on the company network.

12 Which type of early wireless security involved the use of up to a 32 character ASCII string?

MAC
SSID
WEP
WAP

13 Why should HTTP management of wireless access points be disabled on a production network?

The use of HTTP generates excess traffic and degrades network performance.
Web based configuration screens are often awkward and have limited functionality.
Web based administration requires a direct console connection to the access point.
Many vendors have serious flaws in their web server software that can weaken network security.

14 Using RC4, which WLAN security solution fixes the key reuse problem of the WEP algorithm?

AES
3DES
TKIP
SSID

15 Which type of authentication can be processed with or without the use of WEP keys in an 802.11 environment?

open
selective
shared key
default

16 Which type of threats originate from someone who has authorized access to the network via an account or physical access to the wire?

external
internal
structured
unstructured

17 Which security protocol establishes a wireless VPN connection?

IPSec
PPP
LDAP
CHAP

18 Which device is responsible for sending the RADIUS Access-Challenge to the client in an 802.1X environment?

network adapter
RADIUS server
supplicant
authenticator

19 Which device is responsible for sending the EAP request to the client in an 802.1X environment?

client
network adapter
authenticator
RADIUS server

20 Which utility sends false disassociation packets that disconnect 802.11 clients from the access point?

Airsnort
Kismet
Wlan Jack
NetStumbler

21 Which protocol analyzers can be used to eavesdrop in a WLAN environment? (Select three.)

AiroPeek AirMagnet
Etherpeek Wireless
Sniffer Wireless
Airdump

22 Which authentication method requires the client and access point to have the same WEP key according to the IEEE 802.11 standard?

open
shared key
private key
closed

23 Which of the following security methods are included in the 802.1x standard? (Select three.)

EAP-TLS
EEAP
LEAP PEAP
SEAP

24 What is the result of a Denial of Service attack in a WLAN?

Passwords are converted to clear text.
SSIDs are changed in the access points.
Authorized users are prevented from using services.
Root control of a device is transferred.

25 TKIP enhancements to WEP include which of the following? (Select three.)

functions to defeat brute-force attacks
a sequencing discipline MIC elimination for re-keying
CKIP

Fundamentals of Wireless LANs Answer #7

2008-12-20T20:28:00.005-08:00

1 What is the first thing that should be done when aligning antennas if the received signal level differs from the link-budget calculation by more than 8 dB?

Nothing, this is normal.
Check the antenna alignment.
Try a higher gain antenna.
Raise the antenna.

2 Which of the following antennas have a beam with 360 degrees in the horizontal plane and 75 degrees in the vertical plane? (Select three.)

patch wall
ceiling mount
ceiling mount high gain
Yagi Mast
X rubber dipole

3 Which of the following antennas has the lowest gain of 2.15 dBi?

pillar mount
patch wall
Ground Plane
rubber dipole

4 Why should antennas be installed away from microwave ovens and 2.4 GHz cordless phones?

These devices can cause interference because they operate on the same frequency range.
These devices can absorb wireless energy.
The wireless transmissions can prevent these devices from working.
These devices can cause dangerous voltages to develop in the wireless antenna.

5 On level ground, at what distance does the line of sight disappear due to Earth curvature?

6 km (4 miles)
25 km (16 miles)
40 km (25 miles)
50 km (32 miles)

6 In a WLAN, what happens when the length of an antenna cable increases?

multipath interference increases
coverage range decreases
transmission rate increases
beamwidth potential increases

7 Which of the following statements are true about pillar mount diversity antennas? (Select two.)

They are designed for indoor use only.
They behave like an isotropic antenna.
They consist of two antennas in a single package.
They should be mounted parallel to the ground.

8 Which type of antenna is shown in the graphic?

mast mount
patch wall
solid dish
Yagi mast

9 Which of the following statements about a Fresnel zone are true? (Select two.)

Its width increases towards each antenna site.
It is an imaginary ellipsoid that surrounds the straight line path between antennas.
It has its maximum girth at either end.
It must be kept clear of trees and other obstructions.

10 Which types of bridge antennas are considered directional? (Select three.)

patch wall
mast mount low gain
mast mount high gain
Yagi mast
solid dish

11 Which of the following govern the maximum link distance between antennas? (Select three.)

maximum available transmit power
receiver sensitivity
type of data
polarization
system losses

12 What can be done to improve the Fresnel effect? (Select three.)

Raise the antenna.
Increase antenna power level.
Add a wireless filter.
Use a different mounting point for the antenna.
Remove trees.

13 Which of the following antennas are considered omnidirectional? (Select two.)

mast mount
patch
Yagi
rubber dipole
parabolic

14 Which type of antenna is shown in the graphic?

mast mount
patch wall
solid parabolic
Yagi mast

15 When using two standard dipole antennas on an AP, which antenna mode should be selected?

The Receive and Transmit antenna modes should be set to Automatic.
The Receive and Transmit antenna modes should be set to Left Transmit Right Receive.
The Receive and Transmit antenna modes should be set to Right Transmit Left Receive.
The Receive and Transmit antenna modes should be set to Diversity.

16 Which are 2.4 GHz Cisco Aironet directional antennas? (Select three.)

6 dBi Patch
2.2 dBi Single Dipole
13.5 dBi Yagi
21 dBi Solid Dish
5.2 dBi Diversity Pillar Omni

17 Which of the following statements describe an isotropic antenna? (Select three.)

It has 2.14 times the gain of a dipole antenna.
It is only manufactured by Cisco Systems.
It is theoretical only and does not really exist.
It is used as a reference for all antennas.
It has a 360 degree vertical and horizontal beamwidth.

18 Which of the following statements are true about Cisco patch antennas? (Select two.)

They are omnidirectional in their radiation pattern.
They are considered isotropic in nature.
They are used for both indoor and outdoor applications.
They are available in 6 dBi and 8.5 dBi gains.
The 6 dBi antenna is typically used in European applications.

19 What happens to antenna gain as frequency increases?

It increases.
It decreases.
It stays the same.
It would depend on the size of the antenna.

20 What is the maximum possible distance between two solid parabolic dish antennas?

20 km (13 miles)
40 km (25 miles)
60 km (38 miles)
80 km (50 miles)

21 What is meant by the bandwidth of an antenna?

angle of coverage radiated out by an antenna
band of frequencies over which the antenna operates
speed of data transmission the antenna can accept
the total width in degrees of the main radiation lobe of the antenna

22 Which term describes the total width in degrees of the main radiation lobe at the angle where the radiated power has fallen below that on the centerline of the lobe by 3 dB (half-power)?

bandwidth
beamwidth
lobe width
radiation angle

23 Which of the following statements describe dipole antennas? (Select two.)

They can be oriented vertically or horizontally.
They are omnidirectional.
They are used only on access points.
They are formed by an antenna array.

24 Which specifications must be satisfied to use coaxial cable for antenna installation? (Select three.)

The impedance must be 50 ohms.
The total length must not exceed 6 m.
The cable must be semirigid.
The total loss at 400 MHz must be 12 dB or less.
The center conductor of the cable must be at least #14 AWG.

25 What can be done to increase signal level and improve system performance? (Select two.)

Use a higher gain antenna.
Use a lower gain antenna.
Use a lower loss cable.
Use a higher loss cable.

26 How is dBd converted to dBi?

add 2.14
subtract 2.14
multiply by 2.14
divide by 2.14
These units are identical.

27 Which type of antenna is shown in the graphic?

mast mount
patch wall
solid dish
Yagi mast

Fundamentals of Wireless LANs Answer #6

2008-12-20T20:28:00.003-08:00

1 When setting up the connection shown in the graphic, which configuration aspects should be set to obtain a successful ping between PC1 and PC2? (Select three.)

PPP needs to be enabled on the routers.
Each router should declare both networks inside the routing protocol, the one on its AP side as well the one on its LAN side.
Both bridges should belong to the same network.
The network between Bpod1 and R1 should be different than the one between Bpod2 and R2.
SSIDs should be the same on both bridges.

2 Cisco Aironet bridges operate at which layer of the OSI model?

physical
data-link
network
transport

3 Which mode establishes the parent-child relationship between bridges?

Non-Root Bridge
Root Bridge
Access Point Repeater

4 When configuring a Cisco Aironet Bridge through its web browser interface, which methods for IP assignment can be selected in the Boot Server Setup Page? (Select two.)

BOOTP
NVRAM
TFTP
DNS
DHCP

5 Which Radio Port Configuration page contains the MAC address of the Primary Port?

Root Radio Hardware
Root Radio Address
Root Radio Identification
Root Radio Advanced

6 In a large WLAN, how many root bridges can exist?

one
three
five
unlimited

7 When a Cisco Aironet Bridge is configured through the web browser interface, additional routes can be defined in the Routing Setup Page. Which information must be provided for each new route? (Select three.)

DNS server IP address
destination network
wildcard mask
gateway
subnet address
subnet mask

8 Which wireless bridge mode is not covered by 802.11 standards?

access point
non-root bridge
repeater
non-root bridge without clients

9 To utilize hot standby, which parameters need to be configured? (Select three.)

Service Set ID (SSID)
IP address for the monitored access point
MAC address for the monitored access point
Gateway address for the monitored access point
polling frequency

10 Which bridge configurations prevent communication with wireless clients on the LAN? (Select three.)

Access Point
Non-Root Bridge without Clients
Repeater Access Point
Root Bridge
Site Survey Client

11 In order for wireless clients to attach to a non-root bridge, the non-root bridge must be associated to a root bridge or which other type of bridge?

isolated non-root bridge
workgroup bridge
another non-root bridge that is associated to a root bridge
workgroup bridge associated to a root bridge

12 When updating firmware through a distributing access point on a WLAN, which requirements must the access points meet? (Select two.)

The access points must be set to Automatically Update firmware.
The access points must be running firmware that supports the Distribute Firmware feature.
The access points must have their web servers enabled for external firmware updates.
The access points must have their web servers enabled for external browsing.

13 In the graphic, which bridge pairs are able to communicate with each other?

bridge pair A
bridge pair B
bridge pair C
all bridge pairs

14 When using a standby access point for redundancy in a WLAN, which parameter on the standby access point should be different from the monitored access point?

SSID
IP address
default gateway
DNS

15 When setting up two Cisco Aironet 350 bridges for a point-to-point connection, how should the bridges be configured? (Select three.)

System names should be the same for authentication purposes.
Both bridges should belong to the same network.
Both bridges should have the same SSID.
Their roles should be root bridge and non-root bridge without clients.
Their roles should be root bridge in both bridges.

16 Why is bridging one of the most preferred uses of wireless networks? (Select three.)

low equipment costs
rapid deployment
high speed connectivity
more efficient encryption
ease of installation
no geographical limitation on installation

Fundamentals of Wireless LANs Answer #5

2008-12-20T20:28:00.001-08:00

1 When using the GUI interface to configure the Cisco 1200 Series AP for Hot Standby, what is the role of the monitored AP?

Access Point Root (No Fallback)
Access Point Root (Fallback to Repeater)
Access Point Root (Fallback to Radio Shutdown)
Access Point Root (Fallback to Radio Island)

2 What are ways to return a Cisco AP to its factory default settings? (Select two.)

Power cycle the AP while holding in the mode button.
Issue the reset command from the privileged mode CLI prompt.
Click the Reset to Defaults button on the System Configuration screen.
Issue the erase running-config command followed by reload from the privileged mode CLI prompt.

3 Which of the following commands are used to set the AP output power to 20 mW and the data rate to 11 Mbps only? (Select two.)

AP(config-if)# power 20
AP(config-if)# power local 20
AP(config-if)# power client 20
AP(config-if)# speed 11.0
AP(config-if)# speed basic-11.0
AP(config-if)# speed basic-11.0 1.0 2.0 5.5

4 Which of the following are true when setting the IP address and SSID of the AP? (Select three.)

The SSID can be assigned without setting the IP address.
The IPSU can be used to assign the SSID.
The PC used to set up the SSID and IP address must have an IP address of its own.
The IPSU can be used to change the IP address again, but only if the access point is reset to default values.
The IPSU can only be used to change the SSID for the 5GHz radio when an access point is operating in dual-mode.

5 When configuring the AP Radio Port Hardware setup page, which settings are recommended in situations where communication is poor and many client devices are associating with the access point?

low fragment threshold and high RTS threshold
high fragment threshold and high RTS threshold
high fragment threshold and low RTS threshold
low fragment threshold and low RTS threshold

6 Which command is used to set the parent AP for a repeater AP?

AP(config)# parent 10.0.0.1
AP(config-if)# parent 1 10.0.0.1
AP(config-if)# parent 1 abcd.1234.ab12
AP(config)# parent abcd.1234.ab12

7 On the Cisco AP 1200 series, what is the name of the 802.11a radio interface?

interface dot11radio 0
interface dot11radio 1
interface dot11radio a
interface 802.11a radio

8 What are valid methods of configuring an AP? (Select three.)

web browser
DNS server
console port
auxiliary port
Telnet session

9 When configuring the access point, which Ethernet page contains information about the operational status of the Ethernet port?

Ethernet Port
Ethernet Identification
Ethernet Hardware
Ethernet Filters
Ethernet Advanced

10 Which CLI command lists information about Cisco APs located in the same Layer 2 domain as the current AP?

AP# show dot11 adjacent-ap
AP# show dot11 network-map
AP(config)# dot11 network-map 30
AP# show dot11 associations statistics
AP# show dot11 associations

11 What does a blinking amber status LED indicate in a 1200 series access point?

no client devices associated
no power
transmitting or receiving radio packets
general warning

12 What is needed by the Cisco IP Setup Utility (IPSU) to learn the current IP address of an access point?

SSID of the AP
MAC address of the AP
system name of the AP
domain name of the AP

13 What is important information that should be gathered before setting up an access point? (Select three.)

system name
service set identifier
maximum number of wireless clients
SNMP community name
MAC address from the PC used to configure the access point

14 While configuring an interface on a Cisco 1200 series AP, the system administrator attempts to use the keystroke Ctrl+E to move the cursor to the end of the line without success. Why is the command not working?

This command only works in router IOS and not AP IOS.
The command to move the cursor to the end of the line is ESC E not Ctrl+E.
Advanced editing features on the AP have been disabled.
This command is only active in global config mode not interface config mode.

15 How does an AP behave when the receive antenna is set to diversity?

It will use the antenna that receives the best signal.
It will use both antennas at the same time.
It will round-robin between the two antennas.
The AP will always use one antenna to transmit and the other to receive.

16 In the Management System Setup Page, which AP Radio pages are available for configuration? (Select four.)

Radio Port Link
Radio Identification
Radio Hardware
Radio Testing
Radio Advanced
Radio Security

17 What must be enabled to use load balancing and TKIP on a Cisco AP?

Advanced AP Features
Cisco Aironet 802.11 Extensions
WAP
Data Beaconing
Public Secure Data Forwarding

18 An IP address needs to be set on a Cisco 1200 series AP. Which interface should be associated with the IP address?

dot11 radio interface
ethernet interface
bridge virtual interface
It does not matter

19 What is the default IP address of a Cisco 1200 series AP?

10.0.0.1
127.0.0.1
172.27.20.1
192.168.2.1

20 Which of the following are true about the SSID (Select two.)?

The SSID is always a 32-bit long alphanumeric string.
The SSID is case sensitive.
The SSID is, by default, sent out as a beacon on the WLAN.
The SSID is an effective method of WLAN security.

21 Using the CLI, which global configuration mode command enables CDP on a Cisco AP?

cdp protocol enable
cdp enable
cdp run
cdp start

22 What is the result of the command sequence illustrated? (Select two.)

The SSID for the 2.4 Ghz radio is changed to frey.
The SSID for the 5 Ghz radio is changed to frey.
The SSID for both the 2.4 Ghz and the 5 Ghz radio is changed to frey.
The privilege level required to set the maximum number of associations is set to 15.
The maximum number of associations to the SSID is set to 15.
Nothing will happen until the AP is rebooted.

23 What is the default enable password for a Cisco 1200 series AP?

Cisco
Tsunami
Aironet
Wireless
There is no default enable password.
Class

24 In the displayed serial port settings properties, which of the settings are correct to enable a communications session to be established with a Cisco 1200 series AP? (Select three.)

Bits per second
Data bits
Parity
Stop bits
Flow control

25 Which Cisco access point is shown in the graphic?

Cisco Aironet 1100
Cisco Aironet 1200
Cisco Aironet 1300
Cisco Aironet 1350

26 Which command will erase the configuration files stored in NVRAM? (Select two.)

ap# erase configuration
ap# erase startup-config
ap# erase running-config
ap# erase flash
ap# erase start
ap# erase run

27 When configuring an AP through the IOS CLI, which keystroke recalls the most recent entry in the command buffer and pastes it into the command line?

Esc-Y
Ctrl-Y
Tab
Ctrl-H
Esc-P

Fundamentals of Wireless LANs Answer #4

2008-12-20T20:27:00.002-08:00

1 At which OSI layer do antennas operate?

Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4

2 What is an advantage of using the 802.11 standard?

Many laptops are shipped with compatible NIC preinstalled.
The existing network configuration easily accepts 802.11 devices.
There are no problems with reflection of the signal.
Higher speeds are achieved with no extra configuration on 802.11 devices.

3 Which open standard operating system is licensed for use in many mobile computing devices?

Symbian
MS DOS
Windows XP
OS/2

4 Which factors should be considered when designing a wireless LAN that provides seamless roaming capabilities? (Select two.)

consistent IP scheme
routing protocols
existing wired clients
coverage
position of MDF

5 What is the maximun output of the Cisco Aironet 2.4 GHz radio?

25 mW
50 mW
75 mW
100 mW

6 What must be done to convert a desktop computer from wired access to wireless access?

Configure the infrared port so that it is on.
Update the network client.
Change the PCMCIA card.
Change the NIC.

7 At which OSI layer or layers does a wireless AP operate?

Layer 1
Layers 1 and 2
Layer 2
Layers 2 and 3

8 What is the most common device used in a wireless LAN?

access point
wireless bridge
workgroup bridge
computer workstation

9 What is the recommended maximum distance that can be bridged between a Cisco 350 access point and any wireless client?

0.8 km (0.5 miles)
1.6 km (1.0 mile)
2.4 km (1.5 miles)
3.2 km (2.0 miles)
8.0 km (5.0 miles)

10 To provide extended coverage from the wired backbone, what is the required percentage of overlap between an AP on the backbone and a wireless repeater?

15%
25%
50%
75%

11 What are the two critical steps for a good WLAN deployment? (Select two.)

Segment the network.
Determine the placement of access points or bridges.
Map out the channel assignments.
Lay out the existing wired network.
Determine the placement of MDF and IDFs.

12 Which OSI layer is associated with a router?

Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 6

13 What is the acyronym given to the area of RF coverage provided by one access point?

BSS
ESS
SOHO
BSDU

14 Which series of Cisco access points support both 802.11a and 802.11b standards?

1100
1200
1300
1400

15 Which device is used in an environment that needs extended coverage but backbone access is not practical or is unavailable?

wireless Windows CE device
wireless bridge
wireless repeater
wireless Workgroup Bridge

16 What is a wireless network topology that consists of two or more BSSs connected by a common distribution system?

basic infrastructure
base station DSL
peer-to-peer
base station dialup
extended infrastructure

17 The International Bank of the Philippines plans to connect two of its branches which are 16.37 km (10.23 miles) apart. Which type of Cisco antenna would be suitable if the bank wants to use a wireless connection between the two branches?

patch wall antenna
Yagi mast antenna
rubber dipole antenna
solid dish antenna

18 At which layer of the Cisco three layer hierarchical internetworking model should there be no network policy implementation?

user
core
backbone
distribution
campus

19 What type of antenna is typically used at the main site to provide multipoint bridging?

directional antenna
omnidirectional antenna
patch wall antenna
pillar mount antenna

20 Which term describes the ability to locate more than one access point in the same area to increase the available bandwidth for all users?

functionality
scalability
adaptability
manageability

21 In the United States, how many nonoverlapping channels are there for the 802.11b standard?

three
four
seven
eight

22 According to the 802.11b standard, what is the longest recommended distance between two LANs when using point-to-point wireless bridges?

16 km (10 miles)
24 km (15 miles)
40 km (25 miles)
48 km (30 miles)
80 km (50 miles)

23 What are the three basic types of handheld devices? (Select three.)

scan-based
key-based
pen-based
vehicle-mount
wall-mount

1 What is the function of the access layer in the Cisco three-layer hierarchical internetworking model?

to feed traffic into the network, perform network entry control, and provide other edge services
to provide access to various parts of the internetwork, as well as to access services
to provide an optimized and reliable transport structure and to forward traffic at very high speeds
to provide a high-speed switching backbone

Fundamentals of Wireless LANs Answer #3

2008-12-20T20:27:00.001-08:00

1 What are two sine waves that differ by 360 degrees called?

differential waves
orthogonal waves
in-phase waves
equivalent waves

2 What metric unit is used to measure energy?

Watt
Ampere
Joule
Volt

3 An antenna is rated at 7.14 dBi. What is the corresponding dBd rating?

2
3
5
10

4 In DSSS technology, each data bit becomes a chipping sequence. How many chips per bit are used by the IEEE 802.11 standard?

11
12
13
15

5 Which two statements describe power? (Choose two.)

the ability to do work
energy transferred per unit time
joule per second
ampere per volt

6 What is it called when an EM wave spreads or bends around an obstacle in its path?

reflection
diffraction
scattering
refraction

7 What does gain refer to in WLANs?

The amount of increase in coverage area of an RF signal added by the proper downtilt of the antenna.
The amount of increase in energy that proper cabling adds to an RF signal.
The total amount of energy produced by the radio, amplifier, and antenna in an RF signal.
The amount of increase in energy that an antenna adds to an RF signal.

8 If a device has a power output of 1000 mW, which rating would that convert to in dBm?

10
20
30
50

9 How many degrees must two sine waves differ by to be in phase? (Select two.)

0 degrees
45 degrees
90 degrees
120 degrees
270 degrees
360 degrees

10 What is the process of recovering transmitted information from the carrier frequency?

modulation
demodulation
decoding
sampling

11 What is one milliwatt equal to? (Select two.)

0 dBm
1/100 Watt
1/1000 Watt
10 dBm

12 What would be the result if two waves of the same frequency arrive at an antenna exactly out of phase?

There is no effect because the antenna will only receive one wave at a time.
The waves will cancel each other out.
The polarization of the wave will change from vertical to horizontal.
The frequency of the resulting wave will be exactly double that of the initial wave.

13 Where must the EIRP measurement be made in an RF system?

radio output
AP output
cable output
antenna output

14 In the U.S., the FCC sets the 802.11b WLAN maximum power levels at 36 dBm EIRP. What is the maximum power levels in countries regulated by ETSI?

20 dBm
25 dBm
30 dBm
35 dBm
36 dBm

15 What is the impact on antenna size when higher frequencies are used?

The required antenna size increases.
The required antenna size decreases.
There is no change in required antenna size.
The antenna size is not related to the frequency level.

16 Why is OFDM effective in preventing interference between transmitting signals?

The subcarriers are orthogonal to each other.
The subcarriers are perpendicular to each other.
The receiver and transmitter are synchronized.
It uses low data rate streams.
It divides each high-speed carrier into 54 subcarriers.

17 What are two units of measurement used to quantify the power gain in antennas? (Select two.)

dBd
dBm
dBi
dW

18 Multipath interference is usually identified by which of the following? (Select two.)

high signal quality levels
poor signal quality levels
high RF signal strength
low RF signal strength

19 Which phenomenon could be the difference between a successful and a failing WLAN implementation?

reflection
diffraction
scattering
refraction

20 What are important features to consider when selecting the most effective antenna for receivers and transmitters? (Select two.)

diffraction
data throughput
launch effect
polarization
scattering

21 What is true about the channels or bands of frequencies used by DSSS? (Select three.)

Each channel or band of frequencies is 22 MHz wide.
The frequencies are grouped into 11 different channels in the United States.
Each channel or band of frequencies is 20 MHz wide.
Channels 1, 6, and 10 are the nonoverlapping channels used in the United States.
Channels should be colocated only if the channel numbers are at least five apart.
Center frequencies in each channel are only 6 MHz apart.

22 Which formula describes the relationship between energy (E), power (P), and time (t)?

P = DE / Dt
E = P / Dt
P = E + 1/2(t)2
P = DE * t

23 In the formula dB = 10 log10(Pfinal/Pref), what does Pref represent?

amount of decibels
delivered power after some process occurs
original power
saved power before some process takes place
incremental energy

24 In OFDM, how many of the 52 subchannels are used for error correction?

3
4
5
6
7
8

25 When a ray of light traveling in one medium enters a second medium and is not perpendicular to the surface of this second medium, it bends. Which term describes this phenomenon?

reflection
diffraction
scattering
refraction

26 What modulation technique is used by Cisco Aironet access points to transmit data at 5.5 Mbps and 11 Mbps?

FHSK
BPSK
WDSK
QPSK
CCK

27 Which type of bandwidth, as measured in bps, measures how much information can flow from one place to another in a given amount of time?

analog
wireless
digital
electrical

28 Which phenomenon typically results in the redirection of incoming wave energy into directions that are not intended?

propagation
diffraction
scattering
refraction

Fundamentals of Wireless LANs Answer #2

2008-12-20T20:25:00.000-08:00

1 What is the IEEE standard for WLANs?

802.5
803.3
802.10
802.11

2 What are the three non-overlapping IEEE 802.11b High Rate operating channels used in North America?

1, 3, 11
1, 3, 13
1, 6, 11
2, 6, 11
2, 7, 13

3 What is the frequency range of operation in the 802.11a standard for WLANs?

2.4 GHz
11 GHz
5 GHz
5.5 GHz

4 In addition to faster speeds, what is the benefit of the 802.11g WLAN standard?

It provides interoperability among and between all WLAN speeds working at the 2.4 GHz frequency eliminating the need for a complete equipment upgrade.
It provides interoperability between 5.5 Mbps and 54 Mbps WLAN speeds at 5 GHz thus allowing for compatibilty with legacy systems and new devices.
It uses the CCK waveform which offers much higher speeds, greater ranges, and better tolerance of multipath echoes which are common to internal building applications.
It uses a hybrid of OFDM for slow data rates and CCK for fast data rates allowing both waveforms to coexist on the same WLAN.

5 Which layers of the OSI model are primarily supported by the 802.11 standard? (Select two.)

Layer 1
Layer 2
Layer 3
Layer 4
Layer 5
Layer 6

6 What is a major advantage of the 802.11g standard for WLANs?

It achieves data rates in the range of 5.5 Mbps to 11 Mbps in the 5 GHz frequency range.
It achieves data rates up to 54 Mbps in the 2.4 GHz frequency range.
It achieves data rates up to 54 Mbps in the 5 GHz frequency range.
It is an archaic protocol that is rarely used.

7 What is the benefit of using Complementary Code Keying (CCK)?

In the 802.11a standard, it is used to increase peak data rates from 1 Mbps to 2 Mbps.
In the 802.11b standard, it is used to increase peak data rates from 2 Mbps to 11 Mbps.
In the 802.11b standard, it is used to increase peak data rates from 11 Mbps to 54 Mbps.
In the 802.11g standard, it is used to maintain peak data rates of 54 Mbps.

8 What is the best way to get specific software drivers for Cisco wireless adapter cards?

Order them directly from a Cisco retailer.
Download them from the CCO site.
Purchase them at any computer retail store.
They are already installed on portable devices.

9 What is the primary function of Cisco Aironet Wireless LAN Adapters, also referred to as client adapters?

to connect a wireless device to the wired infrastructure providing a common DS
to provide communication between fixed, portable, and mobile devices
to transfer data packets through the wired infrastructure
to transfer data packets through the wireless infrastructure

10 What are the four modulation formats and data rates specified for the High Rate PHY? (Select four.)

differential quadrature convolutional coding (DQCC) mode for 2 Mbps
differential binary phase shift keying (DBPSK) modulation for 1 Mbps
packet binary convolutional coding (PBCC) mode for enhanced performance
differential quadrature phase shift keying (DQPSK) modulation for 2 Mbps
compensatory differential code keying (CDCK) modulation scheme for 5.5 Mbps and 11 Mbps
complementary code keying (CCK) modulation scheme for 5.5 Mbps and 11 Mbps

11 In the 802.11 standard, which mechanism provides security services for the WLAN?

Wired Equivalent Protocol
Wireless Ethernet Protocol
Wireless Ethernet Privacy
Wired Equivalent Privacy

12 Distributed Coordination Function, the fundamental access method of the IEEE 802.11 MAC, uses which type of media access?

carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance
carrier sense multiple access with collision detection
contention-free access
carrier sense multiple access with collision delay

13 In addition to physically installing the client adapter card into the wireless station, what is needed for functionality of the card?

a universal client adapter software driver
an interoperability software patch
a client adapter driver with its corresponding AP driver
a client adapter software driver specific to the OS

14 What does IEEE 802.16 standardize?

Broadband Wireless Access
Cable-TV Based Broadband Communication Network
Wireless LANs
Wireless Personal Area Networks

15 Where does IR PHY operate?

indoor environments only
indoor and outdoor environments
outdoor environments only
well-lit environments only

16 What is orthogonal frequency division multiplexing (OFDM) and how is it used in the 802.11a standard?

A technique that allows short bursts of data to be transmitted on a narrow frequency band and then change to another frequency to continue the data transmission
A technique that divides a communications channel into a number of equally-spaced frequency bands and reduces multipath interference
A technique that allows two or more channels of information to be transmitted at the same time by allocating a different time interval for the transmission of each frequency channel and eliminating multipath interference
A technique that enables a signal to be transmitted across a frequency band that is much wider than the minimum bandwidth required by the information signal thus reducing multipath interference

17 Which standard does the IEEE 802.15 describe?

Wireless LAN (WLAN)
Broadband Wireless Access (BBWA)
Integrated Services LAN (ISLAN)
Wireless Personal Area Network (WPAN)

18 In the 802 Reference Model, which connection services does the LLC provide for the upper layer protocol (ULP)? (Select three.)

acknowledged multicast
unacknowledged connectionless
acknowledged broadcast
acknowledged connection-oriented
acknowledged connectionless

Fundamentals of Wireless LANs Answer #1

2008-12-20T20:24:00.000-08:00

1 Which AP feature makes firmware upgrades and configuration changes much easier?

nonvolatile CAM
removable radio transceiver
hot swappable IEEE 802.11 chips
nonvolatile FLASH ROM

2 Which device is represented by the symbol in the graphic?

wireless bridge
wireless AP
wireless switch
wireless VLAN

3 What are the four main requirements for a WLAN solution? (Select four.)

high availability
cost
scalability
ease of implementation
open architecture
manageability

4 Which IEEE standard contains the specifications for WLANs?

802.3
802.5
802.11
802.12

5 Which device is represented by the symbol in the graphic?

wireless bridge
wireless AP
wireless switch
wireless VLAN

6 When designing a WLAN, what must be completed before deployment decisions are made?

site design
site survey
site analysis
site inspection
site review

7 Which type of wireless transmission usually requires a government license?

microwave
infrared
radio frequency
ultraviolet

8 Which type of media is shown in the graphic?

coaxial
fiber optic
ScTP
STP
UTP

9 Which type of media is shown in the graphic?

coaxial
fiber optic
ScTP
STP
UTP

10 Why is the direct sequence spread spectrum modulation technique ideal for data communications?

It spreads a transmission signal over a narrow range of radio frequencies so there is minimal loss.
It splits the radio signal into multiple smaller sub-signals that are transmitted at different frequencies to achieve high throughput.
It is less susceptible to radio noise and creates little interference.
It reduces interference because it is only affected if two signals are transmitting at the same frequency at the same time.

11 Why is microwave a less desirable solution than radio wave transmission in wireless bridge applications? (Select four.)

Equipment cost is typically high.
A government license is usually required.
Transmission rates are unreliable in any weather.
Rain, fog, or snow can significantly reduce performance.
The network is very difficult to maintain.
The network tends to be point-to-point.

12 What is the maximum throughput that can be achieved by IEEE 802.11a compliant products?

10 Mbps
11 Mbps
54 Mbps
100 Mbps

13 At 2.4 GHz, which transmission speed can be delivered by IEEE 802.11b compliant devices?

up to 10 Mbps
up to 11 Mbps
up to 54 Mbps
up to 100 Mbps

14 On Cisco wireless PC cards, which power mode provides the best connectivity option to the WLAN?

CAM
FastPSP
PSP
CAD

15 What is the purpose of the Cisco Aironet 350 Series Workgroup Bridge (WGB)?

to connect remote LANs over 40 km or 25 miles
to connect up to eight Ethernet-enabled clients to a WLAN
to extend the range of the wireless signal beyond 40 km or 25 miles
to connect two or more networks typically located in different buildings

16 Which technological and strategic developments assisted in the widespread acceptance of wireless technology? (Select three.)

increase in cost of fiber-optic and copper installations
adoption of IEEE 802.11 standards
data rates commensurate with wired networks
increase in compliance regulations in Ethernet-based networks
increased security

17 Which types of transmission medium are available for use by WLANs? (Select two.)

fiber-optic
infrared light
UTP
X radio frequencies
STP

18 In an 802.11 compliant WLAN, what is the best way to avoid radio signal interference?

reposition antennas
change channels
change the throughput options
reduce the power levels of the wireless devices

19 Which of the following modulation techniques offers more speed in a WLAN?

DSSS
FHSS
OFDM
OSDF

2 In a large WLAN, what is the function of multiple APs?

X to allow mobile users to move throughout the WLAN
to provide direct user to user connection
to provide connection between multiple switches
to provide connection between multiple VLANs

CHAPTER 8 - CCNP BSI ANSWERS

2008-12-20T20:23:00.001-08:00

1.Which statement is true about the IPv6 prefix ff00::/8?

The link-local prefix ff00::/8 specifies any addresses which are used only in software.
The link-local prefix ff00::/8 specifies all addresses which are valid on the local physical link.
The multicast prefix ff00::/8 is used for all multicast addresses.
The broadcast prefix ff00::/8 is used for all broadcast addresses.

2.Which IPv6 address is analogous to a private IP address using IPv4?

site local
any cast
link local
NLA ID

3.Which two hexadecimal strings can be used to represent the following IPv6 address: 2031:0000:130F:0000:0000:09C0:876A:130B? (Choose two.)

2031:0:130F:0000:0000:09C0:876A:130B
2031:0000:130F::::09C0:876A:130B
2031:0:130F::09C0:876A:130B
2031::130F::09C0:876A:130B
2031:130F:09C0:876A:130B

4.What are the three types of IPv6 addresses? (Choose three.)

unicast
network
anycast
multicast
broadcast
host

5.Which dual-stack IPv4 and IPv6 configuration statement is true?

The default MTU value must be decreased by 20 bytes to accommodate the IPv6 header.
The default MTU value must be increased by 20 bytes to accommodate the IPv6 header.
The ipv6 enable interface configuration command is required.
The ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command is required.

6.What are the two most common techniques to transition from IPv4 to IPv6? (Choose two.)

encapsulated IPv4 headers
Inter-Site Algorithm Tunnel Addressing Protocol (ISATAP)
GRE tunnels
dual stack
IPv6-to-IPv4 tunnels
IPng tunneling

7.What are two OSPFv3 LSAs that are not available in OSPFv2? (Choose two.)

link LSAs
interarea prefix LSAs for ABRs
interarea router LSAs for ASBRs
network LSAs
intra-area prefix LSAs

8.Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B are both dual-stack routers that run IPv4 and IPv6. The connection between router A and router B is IPv4 only. How will the packet be formatted as it traverses the link between router A and router B?

1. IPv4 tag 2. IPv6 header 3. IPv6 data
1. IPv6 tag 2. IPv4 header 3. IPv4 data
1. IPv4 header 2. IPv6 data 3. IPv6 header
1. IPv6 header 2. IPv6 data 3. IPv4 header
1. IPv4 header 2. IPv6 header 3. IPv6 data
1. IPv6 header 2. IPv4 header 3. IPv4 data

9.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the command ipv6 ospf cost 20?

The Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) will not use this interface unless all other interfaces go down.
The cost number is used in the designated router election.
OSPFv3 will prefer this link over links with a lower cost.
The IPv6 priority must be configured before this command is entered.
The cost of sending a packet on this interface, expressed in the link state metric, is 20.

10.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the command ipv6 ospf priority 20?

HSRP will not use this interface unless all other interfaces go down.
GBLP will not use this interface unless all other interfaces go down.
The priority number is used in the designated router election.
OSPFv3 will prefer this link over links with a lower priority.
The IPv6 priority must be configured before configuring the OSPF cost.

11.Which statement is true of IPv6 and OSPFv3?

The default route is expressed as a prefix with length 64.
The default route is expressed as a prefix with length 128.
Type 3 and type 9 LSAs carry all IPv6 prefix information.
Type 2 and type 3 LSAs carry all IPv6 prefix information.

12.Which statement about OSPFv3 LSAs is true?

Router LSAs contain only 32-bit IDs.
Link local LSAs are flooded throughout an OSPF area.
Area LSAs are flooded throughout an OSPF autonomous system.
Intra-area prefix LSAs have link-local flooding scope.

13.Stateless autoconfiguration enables which IPv6 feature?

use of a thick-client approach
DHCP-lite
capability of devices to connect to the network by the use of DHCP servers
capability of devices to connect to the network without any configuration or without the use of a DHCP server
use of a thin-client approach
capability of devices to automatically assign themselves a hybrid IPv4 / IPv6 address

14.Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

The command tunnel mode ipv6ip enables NAT-Protocol Translation (NAT-PT), which is a translation mechanism that sits between an IPv6 network and an IPv4 network.
The tunnel mode ipv6ip command enables the manual IPv6 overlay tunnel.
This configuration is an example of an automatic 6to4 tunnel.
This configuration is an example of an Intra-Site Automatic Tunnel Addressing Protocol (ISATAP) overlay tunnel.
This configuration uses the reserved prefix 2001::/16 to allow an IPv4 Internet-connected site to create and use a /48 IPv6 prefix based on a single globally routable/reachable IPv4 address.

15.Which three IPv6 addresses are the same but expressed in a different format? (Choose three.)

0123:0078:0000:0000:9ABC:0000:0000:DEF0
0000.0123.0078::9ABC::DEF0
123.0078::9ABC::DEF0
123:78:0:0:9ABC:0:0:DEF0
0123:0078:0000::9ABC:0000:0000:DEF
123:78::9ABC:0:0:DEF0

CHAPTER 6 - CCNP 2 Remote Access

2008-12-20T20:21:00.001-08:00

1
When split-horizon updates are needed to protect against routing loops, what is the recommended Frame Relay configuration?

with the ip split-horizon command
with a full mesh
with subinterfaces
as a star by using a partial mesh
with the ip unnumbered interface command

2
The Frame Relay LMI includes support for which items? (Choose three.)

a keepalive mechanism
a status mechanism
local addressing
a multicast mechanism
a unicast mechanism

3
A Cisco router is configured with the command encapsulation frame-relay on an interface. If both Cisco and non-Cisco equipment are installed at the destination, what is required to ensure communication with the non-Cisco equipment?

they must selectively configure encapsulation-type per DLCI
they must use dynamic configuration
they must use Inverse ARP
they must use LMI type q933

4
Which Frame Relay network topology provides a multipoint PVC connection by using a single interface?

bus
partial mesh
full mesh
Star

5
Which command displays the LMI traffic statistics that show the number of status messages that are exchanged between the local router and the Frame Relay switch?

show interfaces serial
show frame-relay pvc
show frame-relay map
show frame-relay lmi

6
Which functions does the broadcast keyword provide when it is used with the frame-relay map command? (Choose three.)

forwards broadcasts when multicasting is enabled
forwards broadcasts when multicasting is not enabled
simplifies the configuration of OSPF for broadcast networks
provides regular routing-table updates
simplifies the configuration of OSPF for nonbroadcast networks

7
What information is already known by the router with Inverse ARP?

Layer 3 IP address and the DLCI
Layer 2 DLCI
MAC address and DLCI
Layer 3 IP address

8
Which possible PVC states will LMI report as the status of a configured PVC? (Choose three.)

listening
Active
stopped
Inactive
Deleted
down

9
When does a Frame Relay map need to be created manually?

the DLCI-to-Layer 3 address table overflows
multicast is used in the Frame Relay environment
support for LMI autosensing and Inverse ARP are absent
Inverse ARP is manually configured

10
Which protocol is a signaling standard between the DTE and the Frame Relay switch?

DLCI
LCI
LMI
FRAD

11
Which command can be used to configure the Frame Relay circuit number into a router?

frame-relay map 05QHD101545-080TCOM-002
frame-relay circuit 05QHD101545-080TCOM-002
frame-relay interface 05QHD101545-080TCOM-002
description Circuit 05QHD101545-080TCOM-002

12
What is the connection between the customer and the service provider known as when using Frame Relay?

DTE
DCE
NNI
UNI

13
Which command displays the current map entries and information about the connections?

show interfaces serial
show frame-relay pvc
show frame-relay map
show frame-relay lmi

14
Which technology advancement makes Frame Relay the preferred replacement for X.25?

connection-oriented data-link technology
error-free digital transmission
windowing and retransmission mechanisms
comprehensive error correction

15
What is the most popular Frame Relay topology?

bus
full mesh
star or hub and spoke
partial mesh

16
Which command is required for all point-to-point subinterfaces?

ip unnumbered interface
frame-relay interface-dlci
frame-relay map
ip split-horizon

17
Which issue is critical to a partial mesh NBMA Frame Relay network design?

broadcasts
multicasts
split-horizon updates
routing updates

18
To configure basic Frame Relay using Inverse ARP and LMI autosensing, which two tasks should be accomplished? (Choose two.)

configure a Frame Relay map
configure a Layer 3 address
configure a Layer 2 address (DLCI)
set the encapsulation type to Frame Relay

19
What identifies the Frame Relay virtual circuit?

FRAD
DCE
LCI
DLCI

20
When would an SVC be used?

for frequent and consistent data transfer
for a permanently established connection
for sporadic data transfer
for secure data transfer

CHAPTER 4 - CCNP 2 Remote Access

2008-12-20T20:19:00.000-08:00

1

When is a default route normally the only route required on a remote network?
When the remote network is a point-to-point connection.
When the remote network is the next hop.
When the network is a stub network.
When the remote network does not advertise routes.

2

What is the total combined bandwidth available for user data of a standard ISDN BRI line?
64 kbps
128 kbps
144 kbps
192 kbps

3

The S/T interface utilizes how many wires for transmitting and receiving data?
a two-wire interface
a four-wire interface
a six-wire interface
an eight-wire interface

4

Which protocol is used to identify and manage different data types for the same individual device connecting to the ISDN network?
LAPB
LAPD
SAPI
PPP

5

What are the minimum steps that should be performed on an ISDN call setup?
setup, call proceeding
setup, call proceeding, connect
setup, connect, connect acknowledge
setup, call proceeding, connect, connect acknowledge

6

Which command set specifies a United States ATT basic BRI switch type on Cisco 2600 series router?
interface bri 0/0isdn switch-type bri-5ess
interface bri 0isdn switch-type basic-nwnet3
interface bri 0/0isdn switch-type basic-nic2
interface bri 0/0xisdn switch-type basic-5ess

7

Which command will configure a serial interface for PRI operation, as well as set the number of fixed timeslots that are allocated to this PRI?
isdn switch-type
pri-group
interface serial
linecode

8

What is the best command to observe signaling events between the router and the ISDN switch?
debug isdn q920
debug isdn q921
debug isdn q931
debug isdn status

9

When PPP encapsulation is configured for ISDN, which command would be used to revert to the default?
encapsulation x25
encapsulation lapb
encapsulation hdlc
encapsulation cpp

10

Which two items are advantages of ISDN over POTS? (Choose two.)
higher speed
analog connections
faster call setup
designed for voice traffic
operates at half-duplex only

11

Given the above graphic and partial configuration of RTB, what command must be added RTB to ensure that all routers within the EIGPR corporate network will dynamically learn about the 174.24.2.0/24 network?
redistribute static
redistribute ppp
default-gateway
passive-interface
ip default-network

12

In a provider network, which signaling system is used for call control between the switches?
PSTN
Q.931
SS7
Q.921

13

Which routing protocol is typically selected for a DDR link?
RIP
IS-IS
OSPF
BGP

14

Which ISDN BRI Switch types require the special parameter SPID?
DMS-100 and ATT 5ESS
National-1 and ATT 5ESS
DMS-100 and ISDN-1
DMS-100 and National-1
ISDN-1 and National-1
ATT 5ESS and ISDN-1

15

What is the purpose of the dialer-list command when used with ISDN?
to limit traffic to specific protocols
to define interesting traffic
to indicate that broadcasts should be forwarded
to limit traffic defined by ACLs

16

What happens when SPIDs are necessary but not configured?
Layer-1 initialization fails.
Layer-2 initialization fails.
Layer-3 initialization fails.
Layer-4 initialization fails.

17

Which of the following ISDN standards are associated with Layer 1?
Q.920 and Q.921
I.430 and Q.921
I.430 and I.431
Q.920 and I.431

18

Which protocol governs layer 3 between the TEI and the ISDN switch?
Q.921
LAPD
Q.931
HDLC

19

What is the function of ppp multilink?
activates ppp on several interfaces
activates ppp on both synchronous and asynchronous links
enables several ppp authentication types
provides load balancing over parallel links
provides several LCPs during link establishment

20

Which steps are ISDN PRI configuration tasks? (Choose three.)
Select PRI or BRI operation.
Specify the T1 or E1 controller and framing type.
Identify the interface that will act with DDR.x
Select the correct PRI switch type for the router interface.x
Specify the interface for PRI with the interface command.

21

After configuring PPP multilink, which Cisco IOS command will allow the configuration of B-channel aggregation?
dialer map load-threshold
dialer load-backup
dialer load-threshold
dialer load-interval

CHAPTER 7 - CCNP 2 Remote Access

2008-12-20T20:18:00.000-08:00

1

What kind of Frame Relay traffic shaping does the following Map Class command define, when applied to an interface?ROUTA(config) #map-class frame-relay BECNROUTA(config-map-class) #frame-relay adaptive-shaping becnROUTA(config-map-class) #exit
Defines the average rate, in bits per second, that are allowed on VCs associated with the map class.
Defines the peak rate, in bits per second, that are allowed on VCs associated with the map class.
Defines a dynamically fluctuating rate at which the router sends packets.
Defines a static rate, in bits per second, that are allowed on VCs associated with the map class.

2

What is used to set the peak and average rates for individual VCs?
Frame Relay access list
Frame Relay priority list
Frame Relay map class
Frame Relay queue list

3

Which type of network can provide multiple levels of bandwidth and service?
circuit-switched
dial-up networking
packet-switched
dail-on-demand

4

In which portion of the Frame Relay header are the FECN and BECN bits located?
Q.921 header
ethernet header
Q.922 header
Q.931 header

5

Which Frame Relay term describes a network where the sum of the CIRs on all the VCs exceeds the access line speed?
excess burst
discard eligibility
excess-information rate
oversubscription

6

Which Frame Relay traffic shaping type allows configuration of a peak rate to limit outbound traffic?
traffic shaping using queuing mechanisms
adaptive enforcement based on BECNs
adaptive enforcement based on FECNs
rate enforcement on a per-VC basis

7

Which Frame Relay traffic management method allows for granularity in the prioritization of traffic?
adaptive enforcement based on BECNs
traffic shaping using queuing mechanisms
rate enforcement on a per-VC basis
adaptive enforcement based on FECNs

8

Which three are considered frame relay traffic management tools? (Choose three.)
rate enforcement on a per-VC basis
traffic shaping using queuing mechanisms
adaptive shaping based on route filtering
rate enforcement on a per-BECN basis
adaptive shaping based on BECNs

9

Which Frame Relay traffic-shaping command defines rate enforcement parameters?
frame-relay traffic-rate 9600 18000
frame-relay traffic-rate 18000 9600
frame-relay adaptive-shaping 9600 18000
frame-relay adaptive-shaping 18000 9600

10

What does it mean when a service provider allows the customer to purchase a CIR of 0?
The provider will guarantee all throughput.
The provider will not guarantee any throughput.
The CIR will be defined at a later time.
The service will be used to provide a bandwidth analysis.

11

Which command enables Frame Relay traffic shaping on an interface?
frame-relay map-class
traffic-shaping frame-relay
traffic-shaping
frame-relay traffic-shaping

12

What does the term excess information rate define in Frame Relay traffic-management terminology?
the occurrence of congestion
the sum of all the CIRs on all the virtual circuits
the rate that the frame relay switch agrees to transfer data
the maximum bandwidth that is available to the customer

13

Which field in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command will provide the current committed burst size?
CIR
Bcx
Be
BECN

14

What is the maximum rate that data can be sent through a Frame Relay network if the local loop is a T1?
768 Kbps
2.048 Mbps
1.544 Mbps
64 Kbps

15

Which term defines the clock speed of the connection to the Frame Relay cloud?
committed information rate
local access rate
committed burst
excess information rate

16

Which parameter is used to provision network resources and regulate usage?
local access rate
committed information rate
excess information rate
excess burst

17

Which flag is set by a Frame Relay switch to inform the receiving station that congestion was experienced?
BECN
DE
FECN
FCS

18

Which command will associate a map-class with a subinterface?
frame-relay traffic shaping
map-class frame-relay
frame-relay class
encapsulation frame-relay

19

What is sent to the source router when a Frame Relay switch recognizes congestion?
an FECN
a BECN
a Bc
nothing

20

Which frame relay traffic shaping feature is effectively creating a virtual time-division multiplexing network?
adaptive enforcement based on BECNs
adaptive enforcement based on FECNs
traffic shaping using queuing mechanisms
rate enforcement on a per-VC basis

CHAPTER 8 - CCNP 2 Remote Access

2008-12-20T20:16:00.000-08:00

1

When defining interesting traffic in a dialer watch configuration, why should routing protocol traffic be denied?
to prevent the back up line from being advertised in the routing protocol
to prevent periodic Hello packets from resetting the idle timeout
to prevent periodic Hello packets from enabling the backup line
to allow the static route to take precedence over the routing protocol

2

When the backup delay is configured, what does disable-delay specify in the command?
the number of seconds that elapse after the primary line comes up before the Cisco IOS software deactivates the secondary line
the number of seconds that elapse after the primary line goes down before the Cisco IOS software activates the secondary line
the number of seconds that the primary line stays down after the Cisco IOS software activates the secondary line
the number of seconds that elapse after the secondary line comes up before the Cisco IOS software deactivates the primary line

3

What is the purpose of the the keyword never when configuring backup delay?
It enables the primary line to remain active after it is activated.
It enables the secondary line to remain active after it is activated.
It prevents the primary line from being activated or deactivated.
It prevents the secondary line from being activated or deactivated.

4

Which routing protocol uses the variance command to provide unequal-cost load balancing?
BGP
EIGRP
OSPF
RIPv2

5

When the backup delay is configured, what does the keyword enable-delay modify?
the number of seconds that elapse after the primary line comes up before the Cisco IOS software deactivates the secondary line
the number of seconds that elapse after the primary line goes down before the Cisco IOS software activates the secondary line
the number of seconds that the primary line stays down after the Cisco IOS software activates the secondary line
the number of seconds that elapse after the secondary line comes up before the Cisco IOS software deactivates the primary line

6

In the following command, what does the number 60 represent? Router(config-if)# backup delay 30 60
the number of seconds that elapse after the primary line goes down before the Cisco IOS software activates the secondary line
the number of seconds that the primary line stays down after the Cisco IOS software activates the secondary line
the number of seconds that elapse after the primary line comes up before the Cisco IOS software deactivates the secondary line
the number of seconds that elapse after the secondary line comes up before the Cisco IOS software deactivates the primary line

7

Which IOS command is used to specify an interface for backup?
router(config)# interface backupinterface-type number
router(config)# backup interfaceinterface-type number
router(config-if)# backup interfaceinterface-type number
router(config-if)# interface backupinterface-type number

8

Which set of commands will configure dialer watch on RTRA to watch for the Ethernet networks on RTR D?
RTRA(config-if)#dialer watch-list 1 ip 172.10.10.0RTRA(config-if)#dialer watch-list 1 ip 172.10.20.0
RTRA(config)#dialer watch-group 2 ip 172.10.10.0 255.255.255.0RTRA(config)#dialer watch-group 2 ip 172.10.20.0 255.255.255.0
RTRA(config-if)#dialer watch-group 1 ip 172.10.10.0RTRA(config-if)#dialer watch-group 1 ip 172.10.20.0
RTRA(config)#dialer watch-list 2 ip 172.10.10.0 255.255.255.0
RTRA(config)#dialer watch-list 2 ip 172.10.20.0 255.255.255.0

9

When configuring dialer watch, why is it advantageous to configure a small value for the dialer idle-timeout command?
The router should periodically check whether the primary link has been re-established at the expiration of each idle timeout.
The router can quickly use the backup link for other profiles if no interesting traffic is traversing it.
The router should activate the backup link for short durations to check for incoming traffic at the expiration of each idle. timeout.
The router can use the backup link for load sharing if the primary link returns at the expiration of the idle timeout.

10

Which set of router commands is required to turn on unequal-cost load sharing so that RTR A will select the path A-B-E as well as the lowest cost path A-C-E to Network X?
RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1RTRA(config-router)# variance 2
RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1RTRA(config-router)# variance 1
RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1RTRA(config-router)# neighbor RTRC 20
RTRA(config)# router eigrp 1RTRA(config-router)# neighbor RTRB 10

11

When using OSPF, what happens to the traffic traveling from RTR A to RTR B when both lines are up?
The traffic will be load-balanced.
All traffic will travel over the path with the higher cost.
The traffic will travel over both paths.
All traffic will travel over the path with the lower cost.

12

Which dial backup IOS commands are used to define the period of time to wait before the backup link is enabled?
Router(config-if)# delay interface {enable-delay never} {disable-delay never}
Router(config-if)# backup delay {enable-delay never} {disable-delay never}
Router(config)# delay interface {enable-delay never} {disable-delay never}
Router(config)# backup delay {enable-delay never} {disable-delay never}

13

In the following configuration, what does the number 2 represent?
router(config-if)# backup load 2 1
The primary line will be activated when the backup line falls below a threshold of 2 percent.
The backup line will be activated when the primary line exceeds a threshold of 2 percent.
The backup line will be activated when the primary line exceeds a threshold of 20 percent.
The primary line will be activated when the backup line falls below a threshold of 20 percent.

14

Which technology allows a router to monitor the existence of a specified route in the routing table, and when that route is not present, initiate a dial-up backup link?
floating static route
backup load command
load-threshold command
dialer watch

15

When backup load is configured, what is the purpose of the enable-threshold portion of the following command syntax?Router(config-if)# backup load {enable-threshold never} {disable-load never}
the percentage of the primary line that must be exceeded before the backup line is deactivated
the percentage of the primary line that must be exceeded before the backup line is activated
the length of time that the primary line must be exceeded before the backup line is deactivated
the length of time that the primary line must be exceeded before the backup line is activated

16

RTR A depends on dynamic routing protocol information to route to Network X. Which backup method would activate the ISDN interface to RTR D in the event that Network X is no longer available in the routing table on RTR A?
floating static
dialer watch
backup load
backup delay

17

When OSPF is used and both lines are up in the above diagram, what happens to the traffic that is traveling from RTR A to RTR B?
The traffic will be load-balanced across both links.
All traffic will travel over the path associated that is with the higher IP address.
All traffic will travel over the path that is associated with the lower IP address.
The traffic will be unequally load-shared across the links depending on the physical line attributes.

CCNP Q & A Explanation -IS-IS Practice #6

2008-12-20T19:40:00.000-08:00

In OSI hierarchical routing terminology, a router is referred to as which of the following?

A. ES

B. IS

C. CLNP

D. ES-IS

Ans: B

Explanation: Some of the OSI terms that are used in OSI routing environment are given below:
ES: End System, refers to any node that does not take part in the routing process, such as a work station.
IS: Intermediate System, refers to any network node that takes part in the routing process.
IS-IS: Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System, a routing protocol defined for OSI environment.
CSNP: ConnectionLess Network Protocol, protocol used by IS-IS for routing in OSI environment.

CCNP Q & A Explanation -IS-IS Practice #5

2008-12-20T19:38:00.000-08:00

OSPF is a routing protocol used in IP networks, where as IS-IS is used in OSI environment. Many features are common between OSPF and IS-IS. Identify two such features that are common to both IS-IS and OSPF? [Choose 2 correct answers].

A. Both OSPF and IS-IS use Area 0 as backbone network.

B. Both OSPF and IS-IS use Distance Vector to determine shortest path.

C. Both OSPF and IS-IS have authentication capability.

D. Both use SPF (Shortest Path First) algorithm to compute shortest path.

Ans: C,D

Explanation: The following are the features common to both OSPF and IS-IS:
1. SPF (Shortest Path First) algorithm is used by both OSPF and IS-IS for computing shortest route to the destination.

2. They both elect designated router in multi access environment. The term used for designated router in IS-IS environment is Designated Intermediate System (DIS). However, the DIS election in IS-IS is pre-emptive. If a new router boots on the LAN with a higher priority, it becomes the DIS replacing the old DIS.

3. Both OSPF and IS-IS have authentication capability.

4. Both use Hello packets to establish adjacencies.

5. Both use SPF (Shortest Path First) algorithm to compute the shortest path to the destination.

6. Both use Areas, however there is no ABR (Area Border Router) in IS-IS. The L2 router is analogous to ABR.

Some differences between OSPF and IS-IS are:
OSPF uses IP whereas IS-IS uses CLNS in pure OSI environment.
IS-IS uses hierarchical architecture with two level (L1,L2) hierarchy, where as OSPF uses Area 0 with ABRs. Contiguous L2 or L1/L2 routers (ISes) form the backbone in IS-IS environment.

CCNP Q & A Explanation -IS-IS Practice #4

2008-12-20T19:34:00.001-08:00

OSPF uses DR (Designated Router) to flood the media with Hello packets. IS-IS also uses similar concept to flood the media with Hello packets. Which of the following is analogous to DR of OSI in IS-IS environment?

A. Designated Intermediate System (DIS)

B. Authorized Intermediate System (AIS)

C. Designated Intermediate Router (DIR)

D. Authorized Intermediate Router (AIR)

Ans: A

Explanation: DIS (Designated Intermediate System) is the term used for the router that is elected for flooding the LAN media with Hello packets. The functions of DIS is analogous to DR (Designated Router) used in OSPF environment.

CCNP Q & A Explanation -IS-IS Practice #3

2008-12-20T19:33:00.000-08:00

Cisco IOS, running IS-IS supports load balancing up to six equal-cost paths.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Ans: A

Explanation: True, Cisco IOS running IS-IS supports load balancing up to six equal-cost paths.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - IS-IS Practice #2

2008-12-20T19:32:00.000-08:00

Routers participating in IS-IS normally flood LSP (Link State Packets) to adjacent neighbors (except on the interface that the LSP was received). The LSPs have a lifetime, a checksum, and a sequence number. What is the lifetime of an LSP that resides in a link-state database?

A. 2 minutes

B. 5 minutes

C. 10 minutes

D. 20 minutes

Ans: D

Explanation: Routers participating in IS-IS normally, flood LSPs (Link State Packets) to adjacent neighbors, except for the interface on which the LSP was received. Note that in a shared media like LAN, a DIS (Designated Intermediate System) is elected, and DIS floods the media with LSPs. There might be several other scenarios where some routers are not allowed to flood the LSPs. The LSPs are used for constructing link state database. The LSPs have a life time of 20 minutes. The LSPs are refreshed by the originator periodically. Note that, LSPs also maintain a checksum and a sequence number.

CCNP Q & A Explanation -IS-IS Practice #1

2008-12-20T19:30:00.000-08:00

IS-IS uses hierarchical levels to route packets in an OSI environment. Which of the following is true about an IS (Intermediate System)?

A. An IS can only be a level 1 router.

B. An IS can be either level 1 or Level 2 router but not both at the same time.

C. An IS can be both Level 1 and Level 2 router at the same time.

D. An IS can neither be Level 1 nor Level 2 router. Only ES (End System) can assume Level 1/ Level 2 function.

Ans: C

Explanation: An Intermediate System (router) can assume the functionality of Level 1 router or Level 2 router or both. Note that Level 1 routers are used within an area. They can not connect between two different areas. To connect two different areas in IS-IS routing domain, we need Level 2 router. Level 2 routers form the backbone of IS-IS routing domain connecting different areas. A router can be both Level1 and Level 2 at the same time. In this case, two different link state databases are maintained by the router for L1 LSPs and L2 LSPs respectively.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - OSPF Practice #10

2008-12-20T07:24:00.002-08:00

What command is used to display the contents of the topological database, that provides the Router ID and Process ID?

A. show ip ospf

B. show ip route

C. show ip protocol

D. show ip ospf database

Ans: D

Explanation:

The command "show ip ospf database" displays the contents of the topological database maintained by the router. This command also displays router id and the ospf process id.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - OSPF Practice #9

2008-12-20T07:24:00.001-08:00

What is the default interval for sending hello packets on multi-access networks configured to use OSPF?

A. 10

B. 20

C. 30

D. 60

Ans: A

Explanation:

The "hello" packets are sent periodically out of each interface using IP multicast addresses. The hello interval specifies the frequency in seconds that a router sends hellos. This is 10 seconds on multi access networks.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - OSPF Practice #8

2008-12-20T07:23:00.001-08:00

Match the following LSA Types to their correct names:

A) Type 1 1. Network Link
B) Type 2 2. Autonomous System External link
C) Type ¾ 3. Summary Link
D) Type 5 4. Router Link

A. A ->4; B ->3; C ->1; D ->2

B. A ->2; B ->1; C ->3; D ->4

C. A ->1; B ->4; C ->2; D ->3

D. A ->4; B ->1; C ->3; D ->2

Ans: D

Explanation:

LSA Type 1: Router link entry, generated by all routers for each area to which it belongs. These are flooded within a particular area.
LSA Type 2: Network link entry, generated by designated router (DRs). Type 2 LSAs are advertised only to routers that are in the area containing the specific network.
LSA Type 3 and Type 4: Summary link entry, these LSAs are generated by area border routers (ABRs). These are sent to all routers within an area. These entries describe the links between the ABR and the internal routers of an area. These entries are flooded throughout the backbone area and to the other ABRs.
LSA Type 5: Autonomous System External Link Entry, These are originated by ASBR. These entries describe routes to destinations external to the autonomous system. These LSAs are flooded throughout the OSPF autonomous system except for stubby and totally stubby areas.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - OSPF Practice #7

2008-12-20T07:22:00.001-08:00

Which of the following statements is true in multiple OSPF areas environment?

A. ASBR is responsible for redistribution (import) of routing information in an OSPF network.

B. ABRs have all interfaces in the same area.

C. Internal routers are responsible for routing information redistribution (import).

D. In a multi-area OSPF network, Area 0 may or may not be present.

Ans: A

Explanation:

The following are the types of OSPF routers:
1. Internal router: An internal router has all the interfaces in the same area. All internal routers have same link state databases.
2. Backbone router: Backbone routers sit on the perimeter of Area 0, with at least one interface connected to backbone (Area 0).
3. Area Border Router (ABR): ABRs are routers that have interfaces attached to multiple areas. It may be noted that these routers maintain separate link-state databases for each area that they are connected. They are capable of routing traffic destined for or arriving from other areas.
4. Autonomous System Boundary Router (ASBR): These are the routers that have at least one interface to the external network (another autonomous system). This autonomous network can be non-OSPF. ASBRs are capable of route redistribution, a term used to imply that the concerned router can import routing information from non-OSPF networks and distribute the same in OSPF network for which it is responsible and visa versa.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - OSPF Practice #6

2008-12-20T07:20:00.000-08:00

Match the following with regard to OSPF operation:

A. DDP 1. A router that resides within an area.

B. Hello Packet 2. This includes summary information about link-state entries

C. Internal router 3. This packet includes information that enables routers to establish themselves as neighbors.

A. A->3; B->2; C->1

B. A->2; B->3; C->1

C. A->1; B->2; C->3

D. A->3; B->1; C->2

Ans: B

Explanation:

In an OSPF environment,
1. A DDP (Data Description Packet) is used during the exchange protocol and includes summary information about link-state entries.
2. A hello packet is used during the hello process and includes information that enables routers to establish neighbor relationship.
3. An internal router is a router that resides within an area.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - OSPF Practice #5

2008-12-20T07:19:00.000-08:00

Up to how many equal-cost route entries are maintained in the OSPF routing table?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 16

Ans: C

Explanation:

By default, 4 equal cost routes to the same destination are kept in the routing table. With maximum-paths configuration command, OSPF can keep up to six equal-cost route entries ( to the same destination) in the routing table for load balancing.
Further, OSPF uses Dijkstra algorithm to calculate lowest cost route. The algorithm adds up the total costs between the local router and the each destination network. The lowest cost route is always preferred when there are multiple paths to a given destination.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - OSPF Practice #4

2008-12-20T07:18:00.001-08:00

Match the following in the context of an OSPF area:
1. LSU A. This packet is sent by slave router if the DDP has more up-to-date link-state entry.

2. LSA B. This packet is sent when a router notices a change in a link-state

3. LSR C. These are contained in LSPs and have the information about neighbors and path costs.

A. 1->A; 2->B; 3->C

B. 1->B; 2->A; 3->C

C. 1->B; 2->C; 3->A

D. 1->C; 2->A; 3->B

Ans: C

Explanation:

1. LSA (Link State Advertisement): LSAs are included in the database description packets (DDPs or DBDs). LSA entries include link-state type, the address of the advertising router, the cost of the link, and the sequence number.

2. LSR ( Link State Request): When a slave router receives an DDP (Database Description Packet), it sends and LSAck packet. Then it compares the received information with the information it has. If the DDP has more recent information, the slave router sends a link-state request (LSR) to the master router.

3. LSU ( Link State Update): LSU packet is sent in response to LSR (Link-State Request) packet sent from a slave router to a master router. LSU contains complete information about the requested entry.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - OSPF Practice #3

2008-12-20T07:16:00.000-08:00

The OSPF path cost in Cisco routers is calculated using which parameters?

A. Bandwidth, Number of Hops

B. Bandwidth only

C. Ticks

D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load.

Ans: B

Explanation:

The path cost in OSPF network is calculated using bandwidth. The formula used is [10⁸/ Bandwidth]. For example, the cost of a 56kbps serial link is 1785. The default cost of a 10mbps Ethernet is 10. Higher the bandwidth lower will be the path cost.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - OSPF Practice #2

2008-12-20T07:14:00.000-08:00

Which of the following are the benefits of OSPF routing over RIP v1? [Choose all that apply].

A. No hop count limitation

B. Faster convergence

C. Best path selection

D. Support VLSM

Ans: A,B,C,D

Explanation:

OSPF is a link state technology that uses Dijkstra algorithm to compute routing information. It has the following advantages over Distance Vector protocols such as RIP:
1. Faster convergence: OSPF network converges faster because routing changes are flooded immediately and computer in parallel.
2. Support for VLSM: OSPF supports VLSM. However, please note that RIP version2 also supports VLSM.
3. Network Reachability: RIP networks are limited to 15 hops. Therefore, networks with more than 15 hops can not be reached by RIP by normal means. On the other hand, OSPF has practically no reachability limitation.
4. Metric: RIP uses only hop count for making routing decisions. This may lead to severe problems in some cases, for example, that a route is nearer but is very slow compared to another route with plenty of bandwidth available. OSPF uses "cost" metric to choose best path. Cisco implementation of OSPF uses "bandwidth" as metric to choose best route.
5. Efficiency: RIP uses routing updates every 30 seconds. OSPF multicasts link-state updates and sends the updates only when there is a change in the network.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - OSPF Practice #1

2008-12-20T07:13:00.001-08:00

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?

A. 1

B. 100

C. 110

D. 120

Ans: C

Explanation:

The default administrative distances are as below:
Directly connected ----- 0
Static Route -------------1
EIGRP Summary---------5
External BGP ------------20
EIGRP ---------------------90
IGRP -----------100
OSPF ----------- 110
ISIS ------------115
RIP ------------120
Unreachable ------------255

CCNP Q & A Explanation - BGP Practice #10

2008-12-20T07:11:00.000-08:00

Which of the following command remove entries from the BGP routing table and reset BGP sessions?

A. clear ip bgp

B. clear ip bgp 0.0.0.0

C. clear bgp *

D. clear ip bgp *

Ans: D

Explanation:

The command,
clear ip bgp * -clears all the entries from the BGP routing table and reset BGP sessions. This command is used after every configuration change to ensure that the change is activated and that peer routers are informed.
Another command,
clear ip bgp

ex: clear ip bgp 172.31.0.0 -removes the specified network from the BGP table.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - BGP Practice #9

2008-12-20T07:10:00.000-08:00

Which of the following statements is true with respect BGP?

A. Any two routers that have been connected and supposed to make TCP connection in order to exchange BGP routing information are called peers, or neighbors.

B. Any two physically adjacent routers are called peers, or neighbors.

C. Any two routers that have formed a TCP connection in order to exchange BGP routing information are called peers, or neighbors.

D. Any routers belonging to the same AS are called peers, or neighbors.

Ans: C

Explanation:

Any two routers that have formed a TCP connection in order to exchange BGP routing information are called peers, or neighbors. BGP peers initially exchange their full BGP routing tables. After this exchange, incremental updates are sent as the routing table changes. BGP keeps a version number of the BGP table, which should be the same for all of its BGP peers. The version number changes whenever BGP updates the table due to routing information changes. Keep alive packets are sent to ensure that the connection is alive between the BGP peers and notification packets are sent in response to errors or special conditions.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - BGP Practice #8

2008-12-20T07:08:00.000-08:00

Which of the following are well-known mandatory attributes used in BGP? [Choose all that apply].

A. AS_PATH

B. NEXT_HOP

C. ORIGIN

D. COMMUNITIES

Ans: A,B,C

Explanation:

Well-Known mandatory attributes must appear in all BGP update messages. The well-known mandatory messages are:
1. AS_PATH: BGP messages carry the sequence of AS numbers indicating the complete path a message has traversed.
2. NEXT_HOP: This attribute indicates the IP address of the next-hop destination router.
3. ORIGIN: This attribute tells the receiving BGP router, the BGP type of the original source of the NLRI information.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - BGP Practice #7

2008-12-20T07:07:00.000-08:00

Which of the following is NOT a type of message that a BGP common Header will contain?

A. OPEN message

B. UPDATE message

C. ROUTEBUSY message

D. KEEPALIVE message

Ans: C

Explanation:

The following are the four possible message types in a BGP header:
Type 1: OPEN message - This is the first message sent after TCP session is established.
Type 2: UPDATE message - An UPDATE message contains a new route or a route to be withdrawn or both. Note that only one new route can be advertised with one UPDATE message.
Type 3: NOTIFICATION message - this message is sent if an error occurs during a BGP session. This message can be used to troubleshoot the problem.
Type 4: KEEPALIVE message - KEEPALIVE message is used to confirm that the connection between the neighboring routers is still active.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - BGP Practice #6

2008-12-20T07:05:00.000-08:00

Match the following:

A. Stub AS 1. Used by routers belonging to the same AS
B. Transit AS 2. Used by routers belonging to different Autonomous Systems
C. eBGP 3. A single homed network with only one entry and exit points
D. iBGP 4. Data from one AS travels through this to reach another AS.

A. A->3; B->4; C->1; D->2

B. A->3; B->4; C->2; D->1

C. A->4; B->3; C->2; D->1

D. A->1; B->4; C->2; D->3

Ans: B

Explanation:

1. A stub AS is a single-homed network with only one entry and exit point. This type of AS can be connected to the external world through the use of a statically configured route.

2. Transit AS: Data from one AS need to reach a remote AS, then it has to travel through intermediate AS. The AS or Autonomous Systems which carry the data from one AS to another AS is (are) called Transit AS (es).

3. eBGP: External BGP is used between two or more Autonomous Systems.

4. iBGP: Internal BGP is used within an AS.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - BGP Practice #5

2008-12-20T07:04:00.000-08:00

Which of the following is an Exterior routing protocol?

A. OSPF

B. EIGRP

C. RIP v2

D. BGP

Ans: D

Explanation:

BGP is an exterior routing protocol, whereas RIP, IGRP, and OSPF are all Interior routing protocols (IRP). Interior routing protocols run inside a company's network and can't run on the Internet. The Internet consists of numerous autonomous systems (AS) which are connected by Exterior Routing protocols like BGP. The current version of BGP running is version 4.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - BGP Practice #4

2008-12-20T07:03:00.000-08:00

Which of the following is true with respect to BGP routing?

A. Routing decisions are made based on number of hops.

B. Routing decisions are made based on metrics

C. Routing decisions are made based on Tics

D. Routing decisions are made based on network Policy.

Ans: D

Explanation:

Routers running BGP in an AS use network Policy to choose the best path. Metrics are not used in BGP. Remember that Internet is made of autonomous systems (AS) that are connected together based on Policies specific to each AS. Also, AS numbers (ASN) are assigned by AINA and are unique over the Internet. In an internet (not big I) the ASNs can be assigned by the corporation itself that is implementing internet.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - BGP Practice #3

2008-12-20T07:02:00.000-08:00

What kind of BGP session is established between two routers that are adjacent, but in two different Autonomous Systems?.

A. External BGP (eBGP)

B. Internal BGP (iBGP)

C. Default (dBGP)

D. Direct

Ans: A

Explanation:

External BGP (eBGP) is used to establish session and exchange route information between two or more autonomous systems. Internal BGP (iBGP) is used by routers that belong to the same Autonomous System (AS).

CCNP Q & A Explanation - BGP Practice #2

2008-12-20T07:01:00.000-08:00

Under which of the following scenarios BGP is recommended? [Choose 2].

A. When you need a default route to connect to a single ISP.

B. When you need to connect to two or more ISPs.

C. When you are sending traffic through one AS to get to another AS.

D. When you need a simple routing on your intranet.

Ans: B,C

Explanation:

Few recommended scenarios, where you use BGP are:
1. Connect to two or more ISPs
2. The traffic flow out of your network need to be managed to suit the requirements (Policy) of your organization.
3. The traffic need to be sent through one AS to get to another AS.

CCNP Q & A Explanation - BGP Practice #1

2008-12-19T07:54:00.000-08:00

What is the range of autonomous system numbers (ASNs) that can be assigned to a network using BGP?

A. 1 to 256

B. 1 to 1024

C.1 to 64,640

D. 1 to 65,535

Ans: D

Explanation:

The assignable BGP autonomous system numbers are from 1 to 65,535 (I.e. 65,535 in total). Autonomous system numbers are of 16 bit length. This 2 ^ 16 = 65536 -1 possible ASNs, since ASN of all 0s is not assigned. Out of this, the Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA) has reserved the block of AS numbers 64512 through 65535 for private use (not to be advertised on the global Internet).

CCNP Q&A Explanation - Practice #10

2008-12-19T07:42:00.000-08:00

What are the three major advantages of hierarchical nature of OSPF? [Choose 3].

A. Reduced number of SPF calculations.

B. Increased complexity of management

C. Smaller routing tables.

D. Reduced LSU overhead.

Ans: A,C,D

Explanation:

The major advantages of hierarchical nature of OSPF are:
1. Reduced frequency of SPF calculations: This is because the packets are flooded only within an area, and not to the other areas.

2. Smaller routing tables: Routes can be summarized when being advertised out side an area, thus reducing the routing table entries.

3. Reduced LSU overhead: Fewer number of LSUs can be sent with a single or fewer summarized routes between areas to reduce the overhead associated with link-state updates when they are crossing areas.

CCNP Q&A Explanation - Practice #9

2008-12-19T07:41:00.000-08:00

A. 1->A; 2->B; 3->C

B. 1->B; 2->A; 3->C

C. 1->B; 2->C; 3->A

D. 1->C; 2->A; 3->B

Ans: C

Explanation:

1. LSA (Link State Advertisement): LSAs are included in the database description packets (DDPs or DBDs). LSA entries include link-state type, the address of the advertising router, the cost of the link, and the sequence number.
2. LSR ( Link State Request): When a slave router receives an DDP (Database Description Packet), it sends and LSAck packet. Then it compares the received information with the information it has. If the DDP has more recent information, the slave router sends a link-state request (LSR) to the master router.
3. LSU ( Link State Update): LSU packet is sent in response to LSR (Link-State Request) packet sent from a slave router to a master router. LSU contains complete information about the requested entry.

CCNP Q&A Explanation - Practice #8

2008-12-19T07:17:00.000-08:00

The OSPF path cost in Cisco routers is calculated using which parameters?

A. Bandwidth, Number of Hops

B. Bandwidth only

C. Ticks

D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load.

Ans: B

Explanation:

In general, the path cost in OSPF network is calculated using bandwidth only. The formula used is [10⁸ / Bandwidth]. For example, the cost of a 56kbps serial link is 1785. The default cost of a 10mbps Ethernet is 10.

CCNP Q&A Explanation - Practice #7

2008-12-19T07:16:00.000-08:00

Which of the following are the benefits of OSPF routing over RIP? [Choose all that apply].

A. No hop count limitation

B. Faster convergence

C. Best path selection

D. Support VLSM

Ans: A, B, C, D.

Explanation:

OSPF is a link state technology that uses Dijkstra algorithm to compute routing information. It has the following advantages over Distance Vector protocols such as RIP:

1. Faster convergence: OSPF network converges faster because routing changes are flooded immediately and computer in parallel.

2. Support for VLSM: OSPF supports VLSM. However, please note that RIP version2 also supports VLSM.

3. Network Reachability: RIP networks are limited to 15 hops. Therefore, networks with more than 15 hops can not be reached by RIP by normal means. On the other hand, OSPF has practically no reachability limitation.

4. Metric: RIP uses only hop count for making routing decisions. This may lead to severe problems in some cases, for example, that a route is nearer but is very slow compared to another route with plenty of bandwidth available. OSPF uses "cost" metric to choose best path. Cisco uses "bandwidth" as metric to choose best route.

5. Efficiency: RIP uses routing updates every 30 seconds. OSPF multicasts link-state updates and sends the updates only when there is a change in the network.

CCNP Q&A Explanation - Practice #6

2008-12-19T07:14:00.000-08:00

You have a network address of 196.202.56.0 with four subnets. You want to allow for maximum number of Hosts. What is the subnet mask you need to apply?

A. 255.255.255.224

B. 255.255.224.0

C. 255.255.255.128

D. 255.255.255.192

Ans: A

Explanation:

I. The number of subnets required are four. We need to add subnets of all ones and all zeros to this. This is because all zeros and all ones subnets belong to "this subnet" and "all subnets" broadcasts and can not be used. Therefore, the total number of subnets to be reserved is 4+2 = 6.

II. We want to implement maximum possible Hosts. Therefore, we need to minimize the number of subnets. This minimum number is 6 here. If we reserve 2 bits, it results in only 2^2=4 subnets which is less than 6. Therefore, we have to reserve 3 bits for implementing subnets, resulting in 2^3=8 subnets. This is now optimized for maximum number of Hosts (as we have optimized for minimum number of subnets).

III. Write the 3 bits available for subnetting in fourth octet in the form 11100000 (Five 0s being Host bits). The decimal equivalent is 2^7+2^6+2^5
= 128 + 64 +32 = 224.

IV. Now the subnet mask required is 255.255.255.224.

CCNP Q&A Explanation - Practice #5

2008-12-19T07:13:00.000-08:00

Which of the following protocols is a proprietary routing protocol of Cisco?

A. RIP v2

B. EIGRP

C. IS-IS

D. OSPF

Ans: B

Explanation:

IGRP and EIGRP are proprietary of Cisco. These two protocols use composite metric to determine the best path to a remote network.

CCNP Q&A Explanation - Practice #4

2008-12-19T07:10:00.000-08:00

RIP v2 is an example of classless routing protocol.

A. TRUE

B. FALSE

Ans: A

Explanation:

RIP version 2 is a classless routing protocol, where as RIP version 1 (RIP 1) is a classful routing protocol. The disadvantage of classfull routing is the wasted address space. In classless routing, routing protocols exchange the subnet mask information during periodic routing updates. This allows variable subnet masks to be used in the network, allowing better use of address space. For example, a WAN link may need only two IP addresses. If you use classless routing protocol with, say 6 bits for subnetting (62-2 subnets), only 2 subnet addresses are utilized and the remaining become wasted. On the other hand, if you use classless routing protocol, Variable Length Subnet Mask (VLSM) can be used within the network, giving only 2 valid addresses for the WAN link, thus saving valuable address space. (If you are using IP addresses, address space involves IP addresses).

CCNP Q&A Explanation - Practice #3

2008-12-19T07:05:00.000-08:00

Which of the following is true about Weighted fair queuing

1. In this type of queuing, one particular type of traffic is given priority over all other types of traffic.

2. This is an automatic queuing method that provides fair bandwidth to all network traffic.

3. Each traffic type gets a pre-allocated bandwidth. Certain types of traffic can be allocated higher bandwidth depending on the need.

4. Here, each traffic type is given equal bandwidth resources.

Ans: B

Explanation:

Cisco IOS supports the following queuing methods:
1. Weighted fair-queuing: This is an automatic queuing method that provides fair bandwidth to all network traffic.

2. Priority queuing: In this type of queuing, one particular type of traffic is given priority over all other types of traffic. Thus this particular traffic, for which priority is given is assured of getting through. All other types of traffic may not get through in a timely manner.

3. Custom queuing: Here, each traffic type gets a pre-allocated bandwidth. Certain types of traffic can be allocated higher bandwidth depending on the need.

CCNP Q&A Explanation - Practice #2

2008-12-19T07:02:00.000-08:00

Which of the following represent a typical three-layer hierarchical internetworking model? [Choose 3].

A. Core layer

B. Optimization layer

C. Distribution layer

D. Access layer

Ans: A, C, D

Explanation:

The Three layer approach:
1. Core layer: The primary function of Core layer is to provide an optimal and reliable transport structure. The core layer is the backbone network of the entire internetwork and may include LAN and WAN backbones. Core layer usually consists of fully redundant paths with technologies such as FDDI, Fast Ethernet, and/ or ATM.

2. Distribution layer: The primary function of this layer is to provide access to the internetwork as well as to the servers. Distribution layer sits between the Core layer and the Access layer. The policies such as ACLs are implemented at the distribution layer. Distribution layer is also known as workgroup layer.

3. Access layer, also known as desktop layer controls as to how the users access the resources on internetwork. In real world, the layers may be overlapping, in the sense, that a single device may be functioning at both Access layer as well as distribution layer. This is true for even Core layer.

CCNP Q&A Explanation - Practice #1

2008-12-19T06:58:00.000-08:00

Which of the following is NOT a key characteristic of scalable internet work?

A. Reliable and available

B. Efficient

C. Adaptable

D. Virus Detection

Ans: D

Explanation:

The key 5 characteristics of Scalable Internetworks are:
1. Reliable and available: An internetwork is usually up for 24 hours a day and seven days a week, throughout the year. Therefore, one of the key components is Reliability and availability.

2. Efficient: Efficiency means optimization of resources keeping in view available bandwidth. An internetwork should have less amount of overhead traffic, such as broadcasts, routing updates etc.

3. Responsive: It is necessary that the internetwork meet QoS requirements for different protocols. Cisco IOS has been developed keeping in view the QoS demands. For example, SNA may require a different QoS compared to say, IPX.

4. Adaptable: An internetwork should be able to accommodate disparate networks and protocols. The available protocols may include for example, TCP/IP, IPX, and SNA. An adaptable internet should be able to accommodate legacy as well as latest technologies.

5. Accessible and Secure: An internet should be accessible by using different technologies, such as dial-up, dedicated, switched connections. At the same time, it should provide secure environment.

Overview: CCNP Certification

2008-12-19T06:25:00.000-08:00

I. About CCNP™ certification:

CCNP certification validates a network professional's ability to install, configure and troubleshoot converged local and wide area networks with 100 to 500 or more nodes. Network Professionals who achieve the CCNP have demonstrated the knowledge and skills required to manage the routers and switches that form the network core, as well as edge applications that integrate voice, wireless, and security into the network.

CCNP Exams & Recommended Training
Required Exam(s)	Recommended Training
642-901 BSCI	Building Scalable Cisco Internetworks (BSCI)
642-812 BCMSN	Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks (BCMSN)
642-825 ISCW	Implementing Secure Converged Wide Area Networks (ISCW)
642-845 ONT	Optimizing Converged Cisco Networks (ONT)
OR
Required Exam(s)	Recommended Training
642-892 Composite	Building Scalable Cisco Internetworks (BSCI) Building Cisco Multilayer Switched Networks (BCMSN)
642-825 ISCW	Implementing Secure Converged Wide Area Networks (ISCW)
642-845 ONT	Optimizing Converged Cisco Networks (ONT

II. CCNP constituent exams:

CCNP certification is awarded by Cisco^®on passing four individual exams as below:

1. CCNP BSCI Exam BSCI 642-801,

2. CCNP Switching Exam 642-811

3. CCNP Remote Access Exam BCRAN 642-821

4. CCNP CIT Exam 642-831

Please note that the exam CCNP/CCIP BSCI Exam replaces the earlier Routing exam (640-901). The exam 640-901 is no longer available. Note that the exams BSCI 642-801, Switching 642-811, and Remote Access 642-821 also count toward CCDP certification.

Alternatively, CCNP can be achieved by passing the following three exams.

1. 642-891 Composite

2. 642-821 BCRAN

3. 642-831 CIT

The following track was available till recently and since been discontinued:

1. 640-841 Foundations Exam - Note that the exam 640-841 replaces the earlier Foundations exam 640-509. The syllabus for 640-841 is cumulative syllabus of CCNP BSCI, CCNP Switching, CCNP Remote Access exams. Therefore, it is relatively difficult to prepare for the Foundations exam. Unless you have a good hands on experience with Cisco routers, switches, and access servers it is recommended to take individual exams. The exam 640-841 Foundations also count toward CCDP certification.

2. 640-606 Support Exam

III. Pre-requisites for appearing for CCNP certification:

A candidate aspiring to become a CCNP need to pass CCNA - Cisco Certified Network Associate exam as this is a pre-requisite for obtaining CCNP.

IV. Validity of CCNP certification:

CCNP certification is valid for a period of 3 years. A CCNP certified candidate is required to re-certify within a period of 3 years. The certification validity is renewed automatically if 1. By upgrading the certification level (say by obtaining CCIE) or 2. By getting re-certified. A CCNP candidate is recertified by passing the 642-891 Composite (old: "640-851 CCNP Recertification") exam. Also, re-certifying at CCNP level automatically renews CCNA certification validity also.

V. Practice Tests pages:

Please click on the hyperlink to go to the product page or download:

· Cisco CCNP BSCI Exam (BSCI 642-801)

· Cisco CCNP Switching Exam BCMSN 642-811

link (d/l - 1), (d/l - 2)

· Cisco CCNP Remote Access Exam BCRAN 642-821

link (d/l - 1), (d/l - 2)

· Cisco CCNP Support Exam 642-831

link (d/l - 1) , (d/l - 2)

A. DDP	1. A router that resides within an area.
B. Hello Packet	2. This includes summary information about link-state entries
C. Internal router	3. This packet includes information that enables routers to establish themselves as neighbors.